Back to Years

Type:ALLMCQNATMSQ

General Aptitude(10)Engineering Mathematics(9)Farm Machinery(6)Farm Power(8)Soil and Water Conservation Engineering(11)Irrigation and Drainage Engineering(6)Agricultural Process Engineering(9)Dairy and Food Engineering(6)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

Suresh said, “I did it yesterday.” Which one of the following options is the correct form of this sentence in indirect speech? (A) Suresh said that I did it yesterday. (B) Suresh says I did it yesterday. (C) Suresh says that he did it the day before. (D) Suresh said that he had done it the day before.

(A)

Suresh said that I did it yesterday.

(B)

Suresh says I did it yesterday.

(C)

Suresh says that he did it the day before.

(D)

Suresh said that he had done it the day before.

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

To continue the sequence of tiles shown, the tile indicated by the question mark should be (A) (B) (C) (D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider an art gallery whose walkways are shown as lines in the diagram. A black dot represents a junction of two walkways. A guard may be placed at a junction to watch over the walkways that join at that junction. The minimum number of guards needed to watch all the walkways is ________. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

(A)

2

(B)

3

(C)

4

(D)

5

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

The 2nd of June is a Thursday in a certain year. Which day of the week is the 3rd of July in that year? (A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

(A)

Thursday

(B)

Friday

(C)

Saturday

(D)

Sunday

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

A coin with heads facing up is shown as and a coin with tails facing up is shown as . Six coins are placed in the Starting Arrangement, as shown in the figure below. A “step” is defined as interchanging a pair of adjacent coins without flipping them. The minimum number of steps needed to go from the Starting Arrangement to the Final Arrangement, as shown in the figure, is ________. (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

(A)

3

(B)

6

(C)

9

(D)

12

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Exacerbate : Mitigate :: ___________ Choose the option with the correct pair of words to fill the blank. (A) Aggravate : Alleviate (B) Alleviate : Precipitate (C) Aggravate : Precipitate (D) Emancipate : Exonerate

(A)

Aggravate : Alleviate

(B)

Alleviate : Precipitate

(C)

Aggravate : Precipitate

(D)

Emancipate : Exonerate

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct? (A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I. (B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I. (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(A)

Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(B)

Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(C)

Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

(D)

Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

In a population, patients who have high cholesterol also have high blood-pressure (BP). Some patients with high BP also have diabetes. There are no patients who have both high cholesterol and diabetes. Furthermore, 1. the total number of patients with at least one of these conditions is 75, 2. the number of patients with high cholesterol is 10, 3. the number of patients with high BP is 45, and 4. the number of patients with only high BP and no other conditions is 20. Then the number of patients who have both diabetes and high BP is _______ (A) 0 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 10

(A)

0

(B)

15

(C)

20

(D)

10

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

Four people P, Q, R, and S, of different ages, make the following observations. P – I am younger than S. Q – I am neither the youngest nor the oldest. R – P is older than me. Based on these observations, the youngest person is ______. (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

(A)

P

(B)

Q

(C)

R

(D)

S

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

Circles 𝐶 , 𝐶 , and 𝐶 , with centers 𝑂 , 𝑂 , and 𝑂 , and radii 𝑟 , 𝑟 , and 𝑟 , 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 respectively, touch each other as shown in the following figure. Given 𝑟 = 2 cm, 1 𝑟 = 1 cm and the angle ∠𝑂 𝑂 𝑂 is 90°, 𝑟 = _____ cm. 2 1 3 2 3 (A) 1 (−3+√17 ) 2 (B) 1 (3+√17 ) 2 (C) 1 (−2+√17 ) 2 (D) 1 (−3+2√17 ) 2

(A)

1 (−3+√17 ) 2

(B)

1 (3+√17 ) 2

(C)

1 (−2+√17 ) 2

(D)

1 (−3+2√17 ) 2

Explanation

Engineering Mathematics

9 Questions

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

Identify the following partial differential equations in the given order based on their generic form where 𝑐 is a constant, and 𝑢 and 𝑢 are functions of (𝑥,𝑡) and (𝑥,𝑦), 1 2 respectively: (i) 𝜕2𝑢1 = 𝑐2𝜕2𝑢1 (ii) 𝜕𝑢1 = 𝑐2𝜕2𝑢1 (iii) 𝜕2𝑢2+ 𝜕2𝑢2 = 0 𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥2 𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥2 𝜕𝑥2 𝜕𝑦2 (A) (i) Wave equation (ii) Heat equation (iii) Laplace equation (B) (i) Heat equation (ii) Laplace equation (iii) Wave equation (C) (i) Laplace equation (ii) Wave equation (iii) Heat equation (D) (i) Heat equation (ii) Wave equation (iii) Laplace equation

(A)

(i) Wave equation (ii) Heat equation (iii) Laplace equation

(B)

(i) Heat equation (ii) Laplace equation (iii) Wave equation

(C)

(i) Laplace equation (ii) Wave equation (iii) Heat equation

(D)

(i) Heat equation (ii) Wave equation (iii) Laplace equation

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

A box contains one red ball and two blue balls. One ball is drawn at random, its colour is noted and the ball is returned to the box. The process is repeated. In the first two draws, blue ball appears each time. The probability of drawing blue ball again in the third draw is (A) 2 3 (B) 1 3 (C) 1 2 (D) 1

(A)

2 3

(B)

1 3

(C)

1 2

(D)

1

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations

Q13

MCQ[1 Mark]

𝑑2𝑦 The general solution to the ordinary differential equation = cos2𝑥 is 𝑑𝑥2 (A) cos2𝑥 𝑦 = − +𝐶 𝑥+𝐶 , where 𝐶 and 𝐶 are constants 1 2 1 2 4 (B) sin2𝑥 𝑦 = +𝐶 , where 𝐶 is a constant 1 1 2 (C) cos2𝑥 𝑦 = +𝐶 𝑥+𝐶 , where 𝐶 and 𝐶 are constants 1 2 1 2 4 (D) sin2𝑥 𝑦 = − +𝐶 , where 𝐶 is a constant 1 1 2

(A)

cos2𝑥 𝑦 = − +𝐶 𝑥+𝐶 , where 𝐶 and 𝐶 are constants 1 2 1 2 4

(B)

sin2𝑥 𝑦 = +𝐶 , where 𝐶 is a constant 1 1 2

(C)

cos2𝑥 𝑦 = +𝐶 𝑥+𝐶 , where 𝐶 and 𝐶 are constants 1 2 1 2 4

(D)

sin2𝑥 𝑦 = − +𝐶 , where 𝐶 is a constant 1 1 2

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q14

MCQ[1 Mark]

Two square matrices 𝐀 and 𝐁 of the same order are such that, det[𝐀∙𝐁] = −80 and det[𝐀] = 5. Here, 𝐀∙𝐁 is the product of 𝐀 and 𝐁. The value of det[𝐁𝑻] is (A) −16 (B) 1 − 16 (C) −400 (D) 28

(A)

−16

(B)

1 − 16

(C)

−400

(D)

28

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q15

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider the simultaneous equations 2𝑥 +4𝑦 = −7; 3𝑥 +5𝑦 = 1 While solving using Gauss elimination without pivoting, after the forward elimination, the diagonal elements of the coefficient matrix are (A) 2 and −1 (B) 3 and 2 (C) 5 and −2 (D) 3 and 4

(A)

2 and −1

(B)

3 and 2

(C)

5 and −2

(D)

3 and 4

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q16

MCQ[2 Marks]

1 1 The value of the integral 𝐼 = ∫ ∫ 𝑥cos(𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 is 0 0 (A) 1−cos(1) (B) 1+cos(1) (C) 1−sin(1) (D) 1+sin(1)

(A)

1−cos(1)

(B)

1+cos(1)

(C)

1−sin(1)

(D)

1+sin(1)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q17

MCQ[2 Marks]

The determinant of a 2×2 square matrix is 1.6. If the sum of the eigen values is −2.8, the eigen values are (A) −2 and −0.8 (B) −1.8 and −1 (C) −3 and 0.2 (D) −1.2 and −1.6

(A)

−2 and −0.8

(B)

−1.8 and −1

(C)

−3 and 0.2

(D)

−1.2 and −1.6

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Vector Calculus

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

The following two vectors are adjacent sides of a parallelogram: 𝐴⃗ = 2𝑖̂+3𝑗̂−𝑘̂ and 𝐵⃗⃗ = 5𝑖̂−4𝑘̂ The magnitude of area of the parallelogram is ________ (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Numerical Methods

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

While solving an equation 𝑒−𝑥 −𝑥 = 0 for 𝑥, using Newton-Raphson method with initial guess 𝑥 = 2, the solution after first iteration (𝑥 ) is ________ (Rounded off 0 1 to two decimal places)

Explanation

Farm Machinery

6 Questions

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Machine Design

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

A plough attachment, which is a miniature plough bottom that cuts a narrow, shallow furrow ahead of the shin and moves trash and roots toward the main furrow so that they are completely covered by the mouldboard, is called as (A) Jointer (B) Coulter (C) Subsoiler (D) Weed hook

(A)

Jointer

(B)

Coulter

(C)

Subsoiler

(D)

Weed hook

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Machine Design

Q21

MCQ[2 Marks]

A flat belt of negligible mass and thickness drives an output pulley of 0.6 m diameter, constantly rotating at 500 rpm without slip. The arc of contact is 190°for this pulley, while it is 170° for the smaller input pulley. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulleys is 0.30. The measured slack-side tension is 250 N. Neglecting other losses, the power transmitted by the belt drive, in kW, is nearest to (Take π = 3.14) (A) 4.8 (B) 5.6 (C) 6.5 (D) 7.3

(A)

4.8

(B)

5.6

(C)

6.5

(D)

7.3

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Machine Design

Q22

MCQ[2 Marks]

A tractor PTO runs at a constant speed of 540 rpm to drive a rotary tiller via flange coupling having a shear pin parallel to the shaft. The shear pin axis is located at 60 mm from the PTO shaft axis. The allowable shear stress of the pin material is 200 MPa. For overload safety, it must fail at 150% of the rated torque to protect the gearbox. The tiller requires 40 kW under normal load at rated PTO speed. Neglecting bending, stress concentration effects, and other losses, the pin diameter, in mm, is nearest to (Take π = 3.14) (A) 7.5 (B) 10.6 (C) 6.1 (D) 8.6

(A)

7.5

(B)

10.6

(C)

6.1

(D)

8.6

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Farm Machinery and Equipment

Q23

NAT[2 Marks]

A tractor-mounted boom sprayer carries a horizontal row of 12 identical flat-fan nozzles (spray angle 110°). To achieve uniform coverage, the required lateral overlap between adjacent nozzle footprints at the target plane is 30% of single nozzle footprint. Boom height is 0.60 m above the target plane. The tractor is set to travel at a theoretical forward speed of 8 km.h−1. Wheel slip is 8% and the field efficiency is 75%. All other losses are neglected. The total time (in minutes) required to spray 25 ha field is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Farm Machinery and Equipment

Q24

NAT[2 Marks]

A 8 × 20 cm seed drill has 0.60 m diameter ground wheel. On a hard-surface calibration stand, the drill delivers 814 g of seeds in 30 wheel revolutions. When operated in a field having soft soil, the wheel’s effective rolling circumference reduces by 4%. Neglecting other losses, the actual-field seed application rate (in kg.ha−1) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places) (Take π = 3.14)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Machinery→Machine Design

Q25

NAT[2 Marks]

A tractor PTO shaft, through a spur-gear reduction, drives a small grain auger at 540 rpm. The driving gear on the PTO shaft has 0.18 m pitch circle diameter. The auger requires 3.5 kW, transmitted through this gear. Normal force along the line of action between the meshing teeth is 760 N. Assume involute spur gears, single tooth contact, and neglect friction. The pressure angle (in degrees) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places) (Take π = 3.14)

Explanation

Farm Power

8 Questions

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Farm Power and Internal Combustion Engines

Q26

MCQ[1 Mark]

Fuel property that predominantly governs ‘hard / cold starting’ in SI engine is P; and the property that predominantly governs ‘ignition delay’ in CI engine is Q. Identify the correct option for P and Q combination (A) P: Octane number Q: Calorific value (B) P: Volatility Q: Cetane number (C) P: Flash point Q: Viscosity (D) P: Calorific value Q: Octane number

(A)

P: Octane number Q: Calorific value

(B)

P: Volatility Q: Cetane number

(C)

P: Flash point Q: Viscosity

(D)

P: Calorific value Q: Octane number

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Farm Power and Internal Combustion Engines

Q27

MCQ[1 Mark]

A tractor engine delivers 382 N.m brake torque at a rated speed of 2000 rpm. The radiator cooling fan draws 5% of the engine brake power. The fan pushes 2.8 m3.s−1 of air against 0.9 kPa static pressure rise. Assuming air as incompressible, and ignoring other losses, the fan efficiency, in %, is nearest to (Take π = 3.14) (A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 63 (D) 65

(A)

58

(B)

60

(C)

63

(D)

65

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Tractors and Power Tillers

Q28

MCQ[1 Mark]

A 2WD tractor’s driving axle experiences total dynamic normal load of 28 kN. The driving wheels have 0.60 m rolling radius. The total driving axle torque measured is 10.7 kN.m. At 18% wheel slip, the coefficient of net traction is 0.35. Tractive efficiency of the driving wheels, in %, is nearest to (A) 45 (B) 35 (C) 55 (D) 58

(A)

45

(B)

35

(C)

55

(D)

58

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Farm Power and Internal Combustion Engines

Q29

MCQ[1 Mark]

The RMS sound pressure is increased by 50%. This increases the sound pressure level, in dB, nearly by (A) 3.52 (B) 8.11 (C) 100.21 (D) 43.52

(A)

3.52

(B)

8.11

(C)

100.21

(D)

43.52

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Sources of Power

Q30

MCQ[2 Marks]

A small horizontal-axis wind turbine (HAWT) is being designed to deliver 2 kW shaft power at a steady wind speed of 7 m.s−1. The HAWT operates with an aerodynamic power coefficient of 0.36, drivetrain efficiency of 0.90, and air density of 1.225 kg.m−3. Neglecting other losses, the required rotor diameter is X m. When the wind speed drops to 6 m.s−1, the shaft power is Y kW. Identify the nearest correct option for X and Y combination (Take π = 3.14) (A) X = 6.12 Y = 1.28 (B) X = 3.06 Y = 0.63 (C) X = 6.12 Y = 2.00 (D) X = 6.75 Y = 1.50

(A)

X = 6.12 Y = 1.28

(B)

X = 3.06 Y = 0.63

(C)

X = 6.12 Y = 2.00

(D)

X = 6.75 Y = 1.50

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Farm Power and Internal Combustion Engines

Q31

NAT[2 Marks]

A four-cylinder four-stroke engine (100 mm bore and 120 mm stroke) runs at 1800 rpm mean speed with 0.9 MPa indicated mean effective pressure (IMEP). The flywheel constant (ratio of the energy fluctuation to the indicated work per crankshaft revolution) is 0.30. All other losses are neglected. For an allowable speed fluctuation of ±1% about the mean, the required flywheel mass moment of inertia (in kg.m2) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places) (Take π = 3.14)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Tractors and Power Tillers

Q32

NAT[2 Marks]

A 2WD tractor has to develop 30 kN gross tractive force at the ground. Rolling radius of the rear-wheels is 0.73 m. Each rear-wheel is driven by a simple planetary final-drive in which sun gear (26 teeth) is input, ring gear (78 teeth) is fixed, and the carrier is bolted to rear-wheel hub. The sun-planet external mesh efficiency is 98.5%, while the planet-ring internal mesh efficiency is 99%. Losses upstream of the final-drive are neglected. The required sun-shaft input torque per rear-wheel (in kN.m) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Farm Power→Tractors and Power Tillers

Q33

NAT[2 Marks]

A stationary Ackerman-steer tractor on dry, clean concrete surface carries 12 kN vertical load on each front steered wheel of 0.28 m nominal tyre width (b). Assume uniform pressure distribution on the circular tyre-print area having diameter b. Effective friction coefficient between tyre and surface is 0.30. The steering is individually power-assisted by a single-rod hydraulic cylinder, acting through a pitman arm resulting in 60 mm effective moment arm. The hydraulic relief valve is set to 8 MPa, and the cylinder bore is 32 mm (ignore rod area). Neglect other losses. The maximum kingpin offset (in mm), which does not cause to exceed the maximum allowable kingpin torque is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer) (Take π = 3.14)

Explanation

Soil and Water Conservation Engineering

11 Questions

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Fluid Mechanics

Q34

MCQ[1 Mark]

A trapezoidal channel carries 5 m3.s−1 of water under uniform flow condition. The channel has a bottom width of 2 m, side slope of 2:1 (horizontal: vertical), and a bed slope of 1%. If the Manning roughness coefficient is 0.03, the conveyance of the channel, in m3.s−1, is (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 50

(A)

2

(B)

5

(C)

15

(D)

50

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil and Water Erosion

Q35

MCQ[1 Mark]

In wind erosion, the amount of soil transported varies (A) directly as the cube of the threshold wind velocity and inversely as the square of the mean soil particle diameter (B) directly as the cube of the actual wind velocity and inversely as the square of the mean soil particle diameter (C) directly as the cube of the difference in actual and threshold wind velocity and the square of the mean soil particle diameter (D) directly as the cube of the difference in actual and threshold wind velocity and the square root of the mean soil particle diameter

(A)

directly as the cube of the threshold wind velocity and inversely as the square of the mean soil particle diameter

(B)

directly as the cube of the actual wind velocity and inversely as the square of the mean soil particle diameter

(C)

directly as the cube of the difference in actual and threshold wind velocity and the square of the mean soil particle diameter

(D)

directly as the cube of the difference in actual and threshold wind velocity and the square root of the mean soil particle diameter

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil and Water Erosion

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

When the bed slope of the discharge carrier in a chute spillway changes from steeper to milder, we provide a (A) concave vertical curve (B) convex vertical curve (C) reverse curve (D) converging transition

(A)

concave vertical curve

(B)

convex vertical curve

(C)

reverse curve

(D)

converging transition

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil and Water Erosion

Q37

MCQ[1 Mark]

A natural colloidal clay, having the characteristics of absorbing water and swelling 8 to 15 times its dry size, used as an efficient and effective sealing material for farm ponds, is (A) EPDM (Ethylene Propylene Diene Monomer) (B) Butyl (C) Bentonite (D) Soil cement

(A)

EPDM (Ethylene Propylene Diene Monomer)

(B)

Butyl

(C)

Bentonite

(D)

Soil cement

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Hydrology

Q38

MCQ[1 Mark]

By depth-area-duration analysis, the maximum average depth of rainfall over a 103 km2 catchment due to a 6-hour storm is 80 mm. For the same storm, the maximum average depth of rainfall for a 104 km2 catchment, in mm, is (A) greater than 88 (B) lesser than 80 (C) equal to 80 (D) between 81 and 88

(A)

greater than 88

(B)

lesser than 80

(C)

equal to 80

(D)

between 81 and 88

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil and Water Erosion

Q39

NAT[2 Marks]

A homogeneous earthen embankment has an upstream water level of 12 m. The top width of the embankment is 3 m, and its upstream and downstream slopes (horizontal: vertical) are 2:1 and 2.5:1, respectively. A freeboard of 2 m is provided. The coefficient of permeability of the fill material is 2.5 ×10−5 m.s−1. If a 20 m long horizontal filter is placed inward from the downstream toe, the seepage discharge per unit length of the embankment is n ×10−5 m3.s−1.m−1. The value of n is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Hydrology

Q40

NAT[2 Marks]

A 0.80 km2 agricultural watershed has a slope of 0.30% and the maximum length of travel of water is 1 km. The 10-year maximum depth of rainfall is tabulated below: Duration (minutes) 5 10 20 30 40 60 Maximum depth of 16 24 39 50 60 65 rainfall (mm) Half of the watershed has row crops (runoff coefficient = 0.40), whilst the other half of the watershed has pasture (runoff coefficient = 0.35). The peak flow rate for the watershed (in m3.s−1) for the 10-year return period is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Hydrology

Q41

NAT[2 Marks]

Two catchments M and N are meteorologically similar. The basin length (L), length to the centroid (L ), and the drainage area (A) of catchment M are 36 km, 18 km, ca and 250 km2, respectively. The L, L and A for catchment N are 50 km, 30 km, and ca 400 km2, respectively. For 6-h unit hydrograph in catchment M, the peak discharge of 50 m3.s−1 occurs at 12 h from the beginning of the rainfall excess. Using Snyder’s method, the peak of the 6-h unit hydrograph for catchment N (in m3.s−1) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Fluid Mechanics

Q42

NAT[2 Marks]

Two rectangular channels, A and B, join to form a large rectangular channel, C. Each rectangular channel is lined with the same material and has the same bottom slope. The bottom widths of Channels A and B are 2 m and 1 m, respectively. If the flow depth in each channel is 2 m, the bottom width of Channel C (in m) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil and Water Erosion

Q43

NAT[2 Marks]

Bench terraces are planned on 15% hill slope. The vertical interval is 2.5 m, and the riser has a slope of 1:1. The earthwork in cutting is equal to the earthwork in filling. The volume of earthwork per hectare (in m3.ha−1) is ________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Soil and Water Conservation Engineering→Soil Mechanics

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

An undisturbed soil sample is collected from a field with core cylinder having an internal diameter of 60 mm and length of 100 mm. The weights of moist soil and oven dried soil are 0.48 kg and 0.44 kg, respectively. Assuming density of water as 1000 kg.m−3, the water depth (in metres per metre depth of soil) is ________ (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

Irrigation and Drainage Engineering

6 Questions

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Soil-Water-Plant Relationship

Q45

NAT[1 Mark]

A tubewell operating 10 hours per day discharges water at a rate of 25 m3.h−1. The average irrigation depth is 80 mm, and irrigation interval is 20 days. If intensity of irrigation is 80%, the culturable command area (in hectares) is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Soil-Water-Plant Relationship

Q46

NAT[1 Mark]

A tile drainage system having a drainage coefficient of 25 mm drains an area of 0.2 km2. The average discharge from the system (in m3.s−1) is ________. (Rounded off to three decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Wells and Pumps

Q47

NAT[1 Mark]

Impeller speed of a centrifugal pump is increased by 30%. The power requirement of the pump increases by n times. The value of n is ________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Groundwater Hydrology

Q48

NAT[2 Marks]

A well fully penetrates a 30 m thick confined aquifer. After a long period of pumping at a constant rate of 0.06 m3.s−1, drawdowns of 3.6 m and 2.0 m are found at distances 60 m and 120 m away from the well, respectively. The hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is n ×10−4 m.s−1 . The value of n is ________ (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Soil-Water-Plant Relationship

Q49

NAT[2 Marks]

The crop period is divided into four stages, initial, grand growth, mid-season, and late-season, with each stage spanning 25 days. The crop coefficient varies linearly from 0.4 at initial stage to 1.2 at mid-season stage. The reference crop evapotranspiration on 40th day is 8 mm. The corresponding actual crop evapotranspiration (in mm) is ________ (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Irrigation and Drainage Engineering→Irrigation Water Conveyance and Application Methods

Q50

NAT[2 Marks]

Uniformity of irrigation is checked in a border strip by measuring water penetration depth at 16 equally spaced stations along a border strip. The depths of penetration of water recorded in mm are as follows: 0.65, 0.83, 0.79, 0.87, 0.67, 0.85, 0.86, 0.68, 0.88, 0.77, 0.73, 0.59, 0.89, 0.63, 0.72, 0.70 The distribution uniformity low-quarter (DULQ) (in fraction) is ________ (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

Agricultural Process Engineering

9 Questions

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Engineering Properties of Agricultural Produce

Q51

MCQ[1 Mark]

Air carrying dust particles enters a cyclone separator of 800 mm diameter at a tangential velocity of 30 m.s−1 near the wall. The average diameter of the dust particles is 100 µm. The separation factor is nearest to (Take g = 9.81 m.s−2) (A) 229.36 (B) 611.62 (C) 485.72 (D) 3.75

(A)

229.36

(B)

611.62

(C)

485.72

(D)

3.75

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Storage Systems

Q52

MCQ[1 Mark]

A circular mild steel storage bin of 8 m height contains wheat having bulk density of 800 kg.m−3. The coefficient of static friction between wheat grain and bin wall is 0.40 and hydraulic radius of the bin is 1 m. Equivalent diameter of the bin, in m, is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 1 (D) 2

(A)

4

(B)

8

(C)

1

(D)

2

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Engineering Properties of Agricultural Produce

Q53

MCQ[1 Mark]

Mechanical model/method NOT related to rheological behaviour of food products is known as (A) Liebman’s method (B) Newton’s model (C) Maxwell’s model (D) Saint-Venant’s model

(A)

Liebman’s method

(B)

Newton’s model

(C)

Maxwell’s model

(D)

Saint-Venant’s model

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Evaporation and Drying

Q54

NAT[1 Mark]

At an initial pressure of 100 kPa, 1 kg air is compressed reversibly from 15 litres to 1 litre at final pressure of 2000 kPa. Neglecting other losses, the Polytropic Exponent (n) is ________. (Rounded off to three decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Engineering Properties of Agricultural Produce

Q55

MCQ[2 Marks]

The ratio of moisture content on wet basis to moisture content on dry basis for wheat grain is 4:5. The ratio of weight of dry matter to weight of water in the grain is (A) 4:1 (B) 4:5 (C) 1:4 (D) 5:4

(A)

4:1

(B)

4:5

(C)

1:4

(D)

5:4

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Engineering Properties of Agricultural Produce

Q56

MCQ[2 Marks]

In grinding of black pepper, 80% feed passes through 6 mm screen, and 80% product passes through 0.5 mm screen. The gross energy required is 10 kW.h per ton of material. Assuming Bond’s law holds good, and for the same feed conditions, if 80% product passes through 0.2 mm screen, the energy required, in kW.h per ton of material, is nearest to (A) 18.17 (B) 9.09 (C) 5.50 (D) 11.00

(A)

18.17

(B)

9.09

(C)

5.50

(D)

11.00

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Evaporation and Drying

Q57

MCQ[2 Marks]

A single effect evaporator is used to concentrate orange fruit juice with 2.7:1 concentration ratio of product solid to feed solid. The juice is fed to the evaporator at 100 kg.h−1 and 30 °C, where the product moisture evaporates at 60 °C. The specific heat of juice is 3.9 kJ.kg−1.°C−1. The latent heat of vaporisation at 60 °C is 2450 kJ.kg−1. Heat to accomplish the evaporation, in MJ.h−1, is nearest to (A) 165.96 (B) 117.06 (C) 154.26 (D) 142.56

(A)

165.96

(B)

117.06

(C)

154.26

(D)

142.56

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Evaporation and Drying

Q58

MCQ[2 Marks]

At 60 °C dry bulb temperature, saturated water vapour pressure is 20 kPa and relative humidity is 20%. The corresponding absolute humidity of air at atmospheric pressure is nearest to (Take molecular weight of water = 18.02 g.mol–1, molecular weight of air = 28.97 g.mol–1, and atmospheric pressure = 101.325 kPa) (A) 0.026 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.004 (D) 0.041

(A)

0.026

(B)

0.032

(C)

0.004

(D)

0.041

Explanation

GATE→2026→Agricultural Process Engineering→Engineering Properties of Agricultural Produce

Q59

MCQ[2 Marks]

Mass fractions of carbohydrate, protein, fat, ash, and water in banana are 0.220, 0.010, 0.005, 0.015, and 0.750, respectively. The density of carbohydrate, protein, fat, ash, and water are 1550, 1220, 900, 610, and 1000 kg.m−3, respectively. The density of banana, in kg.m−3, is nearest to (A) 1116.85 (B) 1056.05 (C) 1000.00 (D) 1107.70

(A)

1116.85

(B)

1056.05

(C)

1000.00

(D)

1107.70

Explanation

Dairy and Food Engineering

6 Questions

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Heat and Mass Transfer

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

Dimensionless parameter among the following options is (A) heat exchanger effectiveness (B) humid heat of air-water vapour mixture (C) humid volume of air-water vapour mixture (D) overall heat transfer coefficient

(A)

heat exchanger effectiveness

(B)

humid heat of air-water vapour mixture

(C)

humid volume of air-water vapour mixture

(D)

overall heat transfer coefficient

Explanation

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Preservation of Food

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

It is given that the water activity of a food is equal to the relative humidity of the atmosphere that is in equilibrium with the food. The partial pressure of water vapour of the food at a specific temperature is (A) equal to the partial pressure of water vapour in air (B) lesser than the partial pressure of water vapour in air (C) greater than the partial pressure of water vapour in air (D) not dependent on the partial pressure of water vapour in air

(A)

equal to the partial pressure of water vapour in air

(B)

lesser than the partial pressure of water vapour in air

(C)

greater than the partial pressure of water vapour in air

(D)

not dependent on the partial pressure of water vapour in air

Explanation

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Heat and Mass Transfer

Q62

MCQ[1 Mark]

Specific heat, coefficient of viscosity, and thermal conductivity are related in the (A) Prandtl number (B) Reynolds number (C) Froude number (D) Biot number

(A)

Prandtl number

(B)

Reynolds number

(C)

Froude number

(D)

Biot number

Explanation

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Heat and Mass Transfer

Q63

MCQ[2 Marks]

A refrigeration system based on reverse Carnot cycle operates between −30 °C and 20 °C. The refrigeration capacity of the system is 70 kW. Heat rejected at the condenser to atmosphere (hot reservoir), in kW, is nearest to (A) 84.40 (B) 14.41 (C) 186.67 (D) 116.67

(A)

84.40

(B)

14.41

(C)

186.67

(D)

116.67

Explanation

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Heat and Mass Transfer

Q64

MCQ[2 Marks]

A 2 mm diameter electric wire is insulated with 2 mm thick plastic. The plastic has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W.m−1.K−1. The wire is exposed to air at 320 K and outside convective heat transfer coefficient is 25 W.m−2.K−1. Wire surface temperature is constant at 420 K and remains unaffected by the covering. Assuming steady state heat transfer conditions, the ratio of heat loss per metre of wire length with insulation to that without insulation is nearest to (Take π = 3.14) (A) 2.58 (B) 0.39 (C) 1.87 (D) 0.54

(A)

2.58

(B)

0.39

(C)

1.87

(D)

0.54

Explanation

GATE→2026→Dairy and Food Engineering→Preservation of Food

Q65

MCQ[2 Marks]

Pasteurisation of milk can be carried out either at 91 °C for 3 s or at 73 °C for 30 s to inactivate vegetative cells of microorganism(s). The sterilisation value is 10 in both the cases. Thermal death time constant (z value) for reference temperatures of 73 °C and 91°C, in °C, is nearest to (A) 18.0 (B) 1.8 (C) 9.0 (D) 0.9

(A)

18.0

(B)

1.8

(C)

9.0

(D)

0.9

Explanation