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Biochemistry

31 Questions

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following enzyme is involved in the protection of cells from reactive oxygen species?

(A)

Hexokinase

(B)

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(C)

Enolase

(D)

Pyruvate kinase

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

The catalytic efficiency of an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics is defined by

(A)

$k_{cat}$

(B)

$V_{max}/k_{cat}$

(C)

$k_{cat}/K_{M}$

(D)

$k_{cat}/V_{max}$

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

Match the carbohydrates Column I with the correct glycosidic linkages involved in Column II. **Column I** P. Amylose Q. Sucrose R. Amylopectin S. Cellulose **Column II** 1. $\beta(1\rightarrow4)$ 2. $\alpha(1\rightarrow4)$ 3. $\alpha1\rightarrow\beta2$ 4. $\alpha(1\rightarrow4)$, $\alpha(1\rightarrow6)$

(A)

P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B)

P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(C)

P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(D)

P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following options represents the products of light reactions of photosynthesis in plants?

(A)

$O_{2}/NADH/H_{2}$

(B)

$O_{2}/NADP^{+}/CO_{2}$

(C)

$O_{2}/NADPH/ATP$

(D)

$O_{2}/NADP^{+}/ATP$

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q5

MSQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following drugs inhibit(s) ATP-ADP translocase?

(A)

Oligomycin

(B)

Atractyloside

(C)

Amytal

(D)

Bongkrekic acid

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q6

NAT[1 Mark]

Given below is the Gibbs free energy change $(\Delta G)$ in kilo Joules per electron equivalent $(\text{kJ e}^{-}\text{eq}^{-1})$ at pH 7.0, of organic and inorganic half reactions. Acetate synthesis: $\frac{1}{8}CO_{2}+\frac{1}{8}HCO_{3}^{-}+H^{+}+e^{-}\rightarrow\frac{1}{8}CH_{3}COO^{-}+\frac{3}{8}H_{2}O \quad \Delta G=27.4~\text{kJ e}^{-}\text{eq}^{-1}$ Reduction reaction: $\frac{1}{4}O_{2}+H^{+}+e^{-}\rightarrow\frac{1}{2}H_{2}O \quad \Delta G=-78.72~\text{kJ e}^{-}\text{eq}^{-1}$ The free energy change of acetate oxidation to $CO_{2}$, $H_{2}O$ and $HCO_{3}^{-}$ is $\text{kJ e}^{-}\text{eq}^{-1}$. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the biomolecules in Column I with their function given in Column II **Column I** P. Lectins Q. P-glycoprotein R. Digitoxigenin S. Mannose 6-phosphate **Column II** 1. Acts as ATP dependent pump to efflux out small molecules 2. Targets lysosomal enzymes to their destination 3. Specific carbohydrate binding proteins 4. Inhibits $\text{Na}^{+}-\text{K}^{+}$ pump

(A)

P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4

(B)

P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(C)

P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D)

P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q8

MSQ[2 Marks]

An enzyme-catalyzed reaction is found to have $\Delta G=-100~\text{kj mol}^{-1}$. Which of the following statements about this reaction is/are true?

(A)

The rate of the reaction cannot be predicted

(B)

The rate of the reaction is high

(C)

The rate of the reaction is low

(D)

The reaction is irreversible

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q9

NAT[2 Marks]

The electron equivalent per liter $(\text{e}^{-}\text{eq L}^{-1})$ of acetate ion solution of concentration $10\text{ g L}^{-1}$ is $\text{eeq L}^{-1}$ (rounded off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q10

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following coenzymes is utilised by alanine racemase for the conversion of L-Alanine to D-Alanine?

(A)

Pyridoxal phosphate

(B)

Thiamine pyrophosphate

(C)

Tetrahydrofolate

(D)

Flavin mononucleotide

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

Correctly match the following Monosaccharides with their respective Epimers. **Monosaccharide** P. D-mannose Q. D-allose R. D-galactose S. D-talose **Epimer** 1. C-3 epimer of D-glucose 2. C-4 epimer of D-glucose 3. C-4 epimer of D-mannose 4. C-2 epimer of D-glucose 5. C-5 epimer of D-glucose

(A)

P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(B)

P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(C)

P-4; Q-3; R-5; S-1

(D)

P-1; Q-5; R-3; S-2

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q12

NAT[1 Mark]

Within the Michaelis-Menten framework, the ratio of $v_{0}/V_{max}$ when $[S]=20\times K_{m}$ is (Round off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q13

MCQ[2 Marks]

Correctly match the Inhibitor with its respective Function in mitochondrial respiration. **Inhibitor** P. FCCP Q. Cyanide R. Oligomycin A S. Butyl malonate **Function** 1. Inhibits cytochrome c oxidase 2. Makes the membrane permeable to protons 3. Blocks mitochondrial uptake of succinate 4. Inhibits ATP synthase

(A)

P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B)

P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(C)

P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1

(D)

P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q14

MCQ[2 Marks]

An octapeptide composed of these L-amino acids - Lys, Thr, Ser, Met, Arg, Trp, Tyr, Glu - was subjected to analyses with the following outcomes: P. The N-terminal sequencing analysis by Sanger's method yielded 'Ser' at the N-terminus. Q. Chymotrypsin treatment gave a pentapeptide, a 'Tyr' containing dipeptide and a free 'Glu'. R. Cyanogen bromide treatment gave two tetrapeptides. S. Trypsin treatment gave two tripeptides and a dipeptide. Which one of the following is the correct octapeptide sequence?

(A)

Ser-Tyr-Arg-Met-Lys-Thr-Trp-Glu

(B)

Ser-Arg-Lys-Met-Tyr-Thr-Trp-Glu

(C)

Ser-Met-Lys-Arg-Thr-Tyr-Trp-Glu

(D)

Ser-Arg-Met-Lys-Trp-Thr-Tyr-Glu

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q15

MCQ[2 Marks]

Correctly match the Coenzyme with its respective involvement in a specific Reaction type. **Coenzyme** P. Thiamine pyrophosphate Q. Tetrahydrofolate R. Flavin adenine dinucleotide S. 5'-Deoxyadenosyl cobalamin **Reaction type** 1. Acyl group transfer 2. Transfer of one carbon group 3. Transfer of methyl group 4. Oxidation-reduction 5. Aldehyde transfer

(A)

P-5; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(B)

P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(C)

P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-5

(D)

P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q16

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the effect of the concentration of metabolic intermediates on glycolysis in erythrocytes?

(A)

Increased AMP levels stimulate glycolysis

(B)

Increased citrate inhibits glycolysis

(C)

Increased glucose 6-phosphate inhibits glycolysis

(D)

Increased fructose 1,6-bisphosphate stimulates glycolysis

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q17

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following amino acids contain(s) two chiral carbons?

(A)

L-Leucine

(B)

L-Threonine

(C)

L-Isoleucine

(D)

L-Asparagine

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

For the coupled reactions given below Glucose 6-phosphate + H2O $\rightarrow$ Glucose + Pi (Reaction 1) ATP + Glucose $\rightarrow$ ADP + Glucose 6-phosphate (Reaction 2) the standard free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at $25^{\circ}\text{C}$ is $\text{kJ/mol}$. The equilibrium constants for Reaction 1 and Reaction 2 are 360 and 800, respectively; Gas constant $R=8.314~\text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$. (Round off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q19

MCQ[1 Mark]

2-mercaptoethanol breaks the ____ covalent bond between light and heavy chains of an immunoglobulin molecule.

(A)

-N

(B)

-O

(C)

S-C

(D)

S-S

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

An element that is present in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside is

(A)

carbon

(B)

nitrogen

(C)

oxygen

(D)

phosphorous

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q21

MCQ[1 Mark]

Krebs (TCA) cycle is ____ pathway.

(A)

only an anabolic

(B)

only a catabolic

(C)

an amphibolic

(D)

a pyogenic

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q22

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statements is/are correct about an uncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme?

(A)

It binds to the substrate binding site of the enzyme only

(B)

It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex only

(C)

It reduces the $V_{max}$ of the enzyme

(D)

It binds to both free enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q23

NAT[2 Marks]

The free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at $25^{\circ}\text{C}$ is $-32.2\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$. The free energy change for hydrolysis of $\alpha$-glycerophosphate to glycerol is $-8.2\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ at $25^{\circ}\text{C}$. Using the above information, the free energy change for the formation of $\alpha$-glycerophosphate from glycerol and ATP is $\text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ (Answer in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q24

NAT[2 Marks]

The number of different possible ways of forming five intramolecular disulfide bonds with ten cysteine residues of a protein is

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q25

NAT[2 Marks]

An enzyme (E) catalyzes the biochemical reaction $A\rightarrow B$ with $k_{cat}$ equal to $500\text{ s}^{-1}$. If the initial reaction velocity $(V_{0})$ is $10~\mu\text{M.s}^{-1}$ at the total enzyme concentration $[E_{t}]$ of 30 nM and substrate concentration [A] of $40~\mu\text{M}$, the value of $K_{m}$ (in $\mu\text{M}$) is

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q26

MCQ[1 Mark]

The binding free energy of a ligand to its receptor protein is $-11.5~\text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ at 300 K. What is the value of the equilibrium binding constant? Use $R=8.314~\text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$

(A)

0.01

(B)

1.0

(C)

4.6

(D)

100.5

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q27

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following statements about reversible enzyme inhibitors are CORRECT? P. Uncompetitive inhibitors bind only to the enzyme-substrate complex Q. Non-competitive inhibitors bind only at a different site from the substrate R. Competitive inhibitors bind to the same site as the substrate

(A)

P and Q only

(B)

P and R only

(C)

Q and R only

(D)

P, Q and R

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q28

MCQ[1 Mark]

Terpenoids are made of ____ units.

(A)

amino acid

(B)

carbohydrate

(C)

isoprene

(D)

triacylglycerol

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q29

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following are CORRECT about protein structure? P. Secondary structure is formed by a repeating pattern of interactions among the polypeptide backbone atoms Q. Tertiary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide backbone atoms only R. Quaternary structure refers to an assembly of multiple polypeptide subunits

(A)

P and Q only

(B)

P and R only

(C)

Q and R only

(D)

P, Q and R

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q30

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following is(are) COMMON feature(s) for both aerobic and anaerobic bacterial cultures?

(A)

Glycolysis

(B)

NAD+ is the oxidising agent

(C)

Oxidative phosphorylation

(D)

Two net ATP molecules formed per glucose molecule

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q31

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following plot(s) is (are) CORRECT for an enzyme that obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics, assuming $[S]\ll K_{m}$? [S] is the concentration of the substrate, $K_{m}$ is the Michaelis constant, and $v_{0}$ is the initial reaction velocity.

(A)

Option A (Linear v0 vs [S] plot)

(B)

Option B

(C)

Option C

(D)

Option D (Linear v0 vs [S] plot or equivalent)

Explanation

Microbiology

16 Questions

GATE→2026→General Biology→Microbiology

Q32

MCQ[1 Mark]

In nitrogen fixation, to reduce nitrogen to ammonia, which one of the following shows the correct order of electron flow?

(A)

Ferredoxin $\rightarrow$ reductase $\rightarrow$ nitrogenase

(B)

NADH $\rightarrow$ reductase $\rightarrow$ nitrogenase

(C)

Ferredoxin $\rightarrow$ nitrogenase $\rightarrow$ reductase

(D)

Reductase $\rightarrow$ NADH $\rightarrow$ nitrogenase

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Microbiology

Q33

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following antibiotics blocks protein chain elongation by preventing the action of peptidyl transferase ?

(A)

Bleomycin

(B)

Rifampicin

(C)

Chloramphenicol

(D)

Tetracycline

Explanation

GATE→2026→General Biology→Microbiology

Q34

NAT[1 Mark]

To determine the viable cell count of a bacterial culture, you have plated $50~\mu\text{L}$ of a 100-fold diluted sample of the culture on a nutrient agar plate and obtained 20 colonies after overnight incubation. The viable cell count of the culture is $\text{CFU mL}^{-1}$. (answer in integer)

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Microbiology

Q35

MCQ[1 Mark]

Koch's postulate was established by Robert Koch while working on a disease caused by

(A)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(B)

Bacillus anthracis

(C)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

(D)

Bacillus subtilis

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Microbiology

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria in humans, only when this bacterium is infected by

(A)

phage $\beta$

(B)

epsilon phage

(C)

lambda phage

(D)

T4 phage

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Microbiology

Q37

MSQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following features is/are used to distinguish Archaea from Bacteria?

(A)

Gram-staining

(B)

Peptidoglycan in the cell wall

(C)

Presence of N-acetylglucosamine

(D)

16S rRNA sequences

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Microbiology

Q38

MCQ[2 Marks]

Correctly match the Microorganisms with their respective Nutrition and energy requirement. **Microorganisms** P. Photolithoautotrophs Q. Chemoorganoheterotrophs R. Chemolithoautotrophs S. Photoorganoheterotrophs **Nutrition and energy requirement** 1. Use organic compounds as a source of energy, hydrogen, electron and carbon 2. Use light energy and use $CO_{2}$ as their carbon source 3. Use light energy and use organic compounds as electron donor and carbon source 4. Oxidise reduced-inorganic molecules as energy and electron source but derive carbon from organic sources

(A)

P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B)

P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(C)

P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(D)

P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Microbiology

Q39

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the disease (Column I) with its biological vector (Column II). **Column I** P. Chagas disease Q. Trypanosomiasis R. Leishmaniasis S. Yellow Fever **Column II** 1. Tsetse flies 2. Mosquitoes 3. Sandflies 4. Reduviid bugs

(A)

P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B)

P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(C)

P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2

(D)

P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q40

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about leghemoglobin?

(A)

It binds oxygen to protect nitrogenase

(B)

It binds hemoglobin to protect oxygenase

(C)

It binds oxygen to protect hydrogenase

(D)

It binds oxygen to protect oxygenase

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q41

MCQ[1 Mark]

The correct sequence of events during bacteriophage infection of a bacterial cell is

(A)

landing $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

(B)

landing $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

(C)

landing $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging

(D)

attachment $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ landing $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q42

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the type of bacteria in Group I with their respective growth properties in Group II. **Group I** P. Halophile Q. Piezophile R. Mesophile S. Xerophile **Group II** 1. Grows optimally between $20^{\circ}\text{C}$ and $45^{\circ}\text{C}$ 2. Grows best at low water activity 3. Grows at high level of salt 4. Grows optimally at high hydrostatic pressure

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C)

P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D)

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q43

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the virus in Group I with the type of genome it contains in Group II. **Group I** P. T4 bacteriophage Q. SARS-CoV-2 R. Pseudomonas phage $\phi$6 S. $\phi$X174 bacteriophage **Group II** 1. dsRNA 2. ssDNA 3. dsDNA 4. ssRNA

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D)

P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q44

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE about fluoroquinolone drugs?

(A)

They contain quinolone ring(s)

(B)

They inhibit RNA polymerase

(C)

They bind to bacterial topoisomerase

(D)

They bind to 23S rRNA within the 50S ribosome subunit

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Microbiology

Q45

MCQ[1 Mark]

In binomial nomenclature, the name of a bacterial strain is written with the first letter of ____ word(s) being capitalized.

(A)

first

(B)

second

(C)

neither

(D)

first and second

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Microbiology

Q46

MCQ[1 Mark]

The type of nucleic acid present in $\lambda$-phage is

(A)

Double stranded DNA

(B)

Single stranded circular DNA

(C)

Single stranded DNA

(D)

Single stranded RNA

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Microbiology

Q47

MSQ[2 Marks]

Emerging viruses such as SARS-CoV2 cause epidemics. Which of the following process(es) contribute to the rise of such viruses?

(A)

Mutation of existing virus

(B)

Jumping of existing virus from current to new hosts

(C)

Spread of virus in the new host population

(D)

Replication of virus outside a host

Explanation

Immunology

8 Questions

GATE→2026→General Biology→Immunology

Q48

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the immunological terms in Column I with their function/description in the Column II **Column I** P. J gene Q. Cyclosporin R. Epitope S. Hapten **Column II** 1. Suppresses immune system by blocking calcineurin 2. Antibody binding site on a large molecule 3. Small foreign molecule which elicits an immune response only when combined with a carrier molecule 4. Contributes to antibody diversity

(A)

P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B)

P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(C)

P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(D)

P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Immunology

Q49

MCQ[1 Mark]

The diversity in T-cell receptors is generated by

(A)

gene rearrangements

(B)

somatic hypermutation of rearranged V region

(C)

gene conversion

(D)

class switching

Explanation

GATE→2025→General Biology→Immunology

Q50

MCQ[2 Marks]

Correctly match the type of Hypersensitivity reaction with its respective Example. **Hypersensitivity reaction** P. Type I Q. Type II R. Type III S. Type IV **Example** 1. Tuberculin reaction 2. Arthus reaction 3. Chronic urticaria 4. Systemic anaphylaxis

(A)

P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B)

P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(C)

P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(D)

P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q51

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following drugs is NOT an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

(A)

Ipilimumab

(B)

Pembrolizumab

(C)

Nivolumab

(D)

Trastuzumab

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q52

MCQ[1 Mark]

Dendritic cells are involved in cross-presentation of antigens. Which of the following protein(s) is (are) required for cross-presentation? P. Basic leucine zipper ATF-like transcription factor 3 (BATF3) Q. Membrane associated ring-CH-type finger 1 (MARCH-1) R. Solute carrier family 10 member 1 (SLC10A1) S. Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)

(A)

P only

(B)

P and R only

(C)

P, Q and R only

(D)

S only

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q53

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is required for the development of B-cells in the bone marrow?

(A)

Stromal cells

(B)

Dendritic cells

(C)

Kupffer cells

(D)

NK cells

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q54

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the immune tolerance mechanisms in Group I with their respective outcomes in Group II. **Group I** P. Anergy Q. Activation-induced cell death R. Receptor editing S. Regulatory T-cells **Group II** 1. Elimination of activated T-cells after antigen clearance 2. Inhibition of auto-reactive T-cells at periphery 3. Unresponsiveness to antigens due to lack of co-stimulatory molecules 4. Elimination of auto-reactive B-cells

(A)

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B)

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C)

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)

P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Biology→Immunology

Q55

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the cell type (Column I) with its function (Column II). **Column I** P. B cells Q. Neutrophils R. T cells S. Mast cells **Column II** 1. Humoral immunity 2. Cytotoxicity 3. Histamine-associated allergy 4. Phagocytosis

(A)

P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B)

P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(C)

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Explanation