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General Aptitude(10)Engineering Mathematics(9)General Biology(11)Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology(12)Fundamentals of Biological Engineering(9)Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology(5)Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology(9)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

"You are delaying the completion of the task. Send ____ contributions at the earliest."

(A)

you are

(B)

your

(C)

you're

(D)

yore

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

References: [Reference word] :: Guidelines: Implement (By word meaning)

(A)

Sight

(B)

Site

(C)

Cite

(D)

Plagiarise

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with $PS=7$ cm, $PT=4$ cm and $PV=5$ cm. What is the length of RS in cm?

(A)

20 / 7

(B)

28 / 5

(C)

9 / 2

(D)

35 / 4

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in Mathematics. When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college. Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)

Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.

(B)

Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.

(C)

All Fields medalists are part-time poets.

(D)

Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line. The given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the three black squares, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry?

(A)

3

(B)

4

(C)

5

(D)

6

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given that the statement "Some human beings are not cruel creatures" is FALSE, then which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)

only (i)

(B)

only (iii) and (iv)

(C)

only (i) and (ii)

(D)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2. If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?

(A)

400

(B)

600

(C)

800

(D)

200

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri Lanka, which is battling its worst economic crisis in decades, until the country has an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place... Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be inferred with certainty?

(A)

According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka's economic crisis is that it does not have enough foreign exchange.

(B)

The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.

(C)

According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework.

(D)

The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

The coefficient of $x^{4}$ in the polynomial $(x-1)^{3}(x-2)^{3}$ is equal to

(A)

33

(B)

-3

(C)

30

(D)

21

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical and are not allowed to overlap.

(A)

circle

(B)

regular octagon

(C)

regular pentagon

(D)

rhombus

Explanation

Engineering Mathematics

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q11

NAT[1 Mark]

The value of $\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\left[\frac{\cos~2x-\cos~4x}{x^{2}}\right]$ is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q12

NAT[1 Mark]

A series (S) is given as $$S=1+3+5+7+9+\dots$$ The sum of the first 50 terms of S is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q13

NAT[1 Mark]

Two fair six-sided dice are thrown. The probability of getting 12 as the product of the numbers on the dice (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q14

NAT[1 Mark]

If $7^{3x}=216$, the value of $7^{-x}$ (rounded off to three decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q15

NAT[1 Mark]

The distance between the two points of intersection of $x^{2}+y=7$ and $x+y=7$ (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q16

NAT[2 Marks]

If $A=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 3 & 5 \end{pmatrix}$, the value of $|A^{4}+3A^{2}-5A+6I|$ is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q17

NAT[2 Marks]

If $f(x)=\frac{\sin~x+\cos~x}{\sin~x-\cos~x}$, the value of $f^{\prime}(x)$ at $x=0$ is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

If $f(2)=5$ and $(f(x))(f(x+1))=3$ for all real values of x, the value of $f(10)$ is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

Ten playing cards numbered $1,2,3,....,10$ are placed face down on a table. One card is drawn at random, its number recorded, and then replaced face down. A card is drawn again at random. The probability that the number on the second draw is greater than the number on the first draw (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

General Biology

11 Questions

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following drugs is NOT an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

(A)

Ipilimumab

(B)

Pembrolizumab

(C)

Nivolumab

(D)

Trastuzumab

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q21

MCQ[1 Mark]

Dendritic cells are involved in cross-presentation of antigens. Which of the following protein(s) is (are) required for cross-presentation? P. Basic leucine zipper ATF-like transcription factor 3 (BATF3) Q. Membrane associated ring-CH-type finger 1 (MARCH-1) R. Solute carrier family 10 member 1 (SLC10A1) S. Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)

(A)

P only

(B)

P and R only

(C)

P, Q and R only

(D)

S only

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q22

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is required for the development of B-cells in the bone marrow?

(A)

Stromal cells

(B)

Dendritic cells

(C)

Kupffer cells

(D)

NK cells

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q23

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about leghemoglobin?

(A)

It binds oxygen to protect nitrogenase

(B)

It binds hemoglobin to protect oxygenase

(C)

It binds oxygen to protect hydrogenase

(D)

It binds oxygen to protect oxygenase

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q24

MCQ[1 Mark]

The correct sequence of events during bacteriophage infection of a bacterial cell is

(A)

landing $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

(B)

landing $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

(C)

landing $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ attachment $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging

(D)

attachment $\rightarrow$ tail contraction $\rightarrow$ landing $\rightarrow$ penetration and unplugging $\rightarrow$ DNA ejection

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Immunology

Q25

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the immune tolerance mechanisms in Group I with their respective outcomes in Group II. **Group I** P. Anergy Q. Activation-induced cell death R. Receptor editing S. Regulatory T-cells **Group II** 1. Elimination of activated T-cells after antigen clearance 2. Inhibition of auto-reactive T-cells at periphery 3. Unresponsiveness to antigens due to lack of co-stimulatory molecules 4. Elimination of auto-reactive B-cells

(A)

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B)

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C)

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)

P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q26

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the type of bacteria in Group I with their respective growth properties in Group II. **Group I** P. Halophile Q. Piezophile R. Mesophile S. Xerophile **Group II** 1. Grows optimally between $20^{\circ}\text{C}$ and $45^{\circ}\text{C}$ 2. Grows best at low water activity 3. Grows at high level of salt 4. Grows optimally at high hydrostatic pressure

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C)

P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D)

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q27

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the virus in Group I with the type of genome it contains in Group II. **Group I** P. T4 bacteriophage Q. SARS-CoV-2 R. Pseudomonas phage $\phi$6 S. $\phi$X174 bacteriophage **Group II** 1. dsRNA 2. ssDNA 3. dsDNA 4. ssRNA

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D)

P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Microbiology

Q28

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE about fluoroquinolone drugs?

(A)

They contain quinolone ring(s)

(B)

They inhibit RNA polymerase

(C)

They bind to bacterial topoisomerase

(D)

They bind to 23S rRNA within the 50S ribosome subunit

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q29

NAT[2 Marks]

The number of different possible ways of forming five intramolecular disulfide bonds with ten cysteine residues of a protein is

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q30

NAT[2 Marks]

An enzyme (E) catalyzes the biochemical reaction $A\rightarrow B$ with $k_{cat}$ equal to $500\text{ s}^{-1}$. If the initial reaction velocity $(V_{0})$ is $10~\mu\text{M.s}^{-1}$ at the total enzyme concentration $[E_{t}]$ of 30 nM and substrate concentration [A] of $40~\mu\text{M}$, the value of $K_{m}$ (in $\mu\text{M}$) is

Explanation

Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology

12 Questions

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q31

MCQ[1 Mark]

Eukaryotic transcription is carried out by

(A)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

(B)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

(C)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

(D)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q32

MCQ[1 Mark]

Acetylcholine released by the parasympathetic nerves has which one of the following functions in the heart pacemaker cells?

(A)

It binds to GPCR and activates G protein to slow the heart rate

(B)

It stimulates GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart rate

(C)

It binds to GPCR and inhibits G protein to slow the heart rate

(D)

It inhibits GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart rate

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q33

MCQ[1 Mark]

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion [a]: In multicellular organisms, cells of different lineages have different gene expression profiles. Reason [r]: Alternative splicing is the only mechanism to generate protein diversity.

(A)

Both [a] and [r] are false

(B)

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(C)

Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D)

[a] is true but [r] is false

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q34

MCQ[1 Mark]

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion [a]: Chromosome mutations can change the structure of chromosomes. Reason [r]: All chromosome mutations arise due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis.

(A)

Both [a] and [r] are false

(B)

[a] is true but [r] is false

(C)

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(D)

Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q35

MCQ[1 Mark]

C-value paradox refers to

(A)

the lack of correlation between genome size and genetic complexity of an organism

(B)

the presence of genetic sequences that propagate themselves within a genome

(C)

the coexistence of multiple alleles at a genetic locus

(D)

the concept that two or more genes may have the same function

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

Intracellular proteins are targeted for proteolytic degradation in proteasomes upon conjugation with

(A)

ubiquitin

(B)

integrin

(C)

peptidase

(D)

calreticulin

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q37

MCQ[1 Mark]

Match the types of RNA in Group I with their corresponding function in Group II. **Group I** P. mRNA Q. rRNA R. miRNA S. tRNA **Group II** 1. Serves as adaptors between mRNA and amino acids during protein synthesis 2. Regulates post-transcriptional gene expression 3. Codes for proteins 4. Forms the core of the ribosome structure and catalyzes protein synthesis

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D)

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q38

NAT[1 Mark]

Fabry disease in humans is a X-linked disease. The probability (in percentage) for a phenotypically normal father and a carrier mother to have a son with Fabry disease is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q39

MSQ[2 Marks]

The event(s) that lead(s) to inactivation of tumor suppressor genes in cancer cells is(are)

(A)

gene amplification

(B)

promoter methylation

(C)

loss of heterozygosity

(D)

histone acetylation

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q40

MSQ[2 Marks]

Methylation of CpG islands near the promoter of a gene can inhibit transcription by

(A)

preventing RNA polymerase binding

(B)

facilitating repressor binding

(C)

facilitating heterochromatin formation

(D)

inducing euchromatin formation

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q41

NAT[2 Marks]

DNA sample collected from an unidentified bacterial species (Y) contains 13% of adenine. The G+C content (in percentage) of Y is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q42

NAT[2 Marks]

If 1000 bp of a double-helical DNA weighs $1\times10^{-18}$ gm and distance between two bp is 0.34 nm, the total amount of DNA (in mg, rounded off to one decimal place) required to stretch from Earth to Moon (assuming the distance between Earth and Moon to be 3,74,000 km) is

Explanation

Fundamentals of Biological Engineering

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q43

NAT[2 Marks]

The following reaction represents biomass synthesis from hexadecane $$C_{16}H_{34}+12.5O_{2}+2.13NH_{3}\rightarrow10.6CH_{1.66}O_{0.27}N_{0.27}+5.37CO_{2}+11.4H_{2}O$$ where $CH_{1.66}O_{0.27}N_{0.27}$ represents the biomass. The value of respiratory quotient (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

Temperature of a reaction with an activation energy value of $15~\text{kcal.mol}^{-1}$ is increased from 300 K to 310 K. If the value of the ideal gas constant (R) is $1.9872~\text{cal.mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$, the ratio of the reaction rate constants $(k_{310}/k_{300})$ (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q45

NAT[2 Marks]

E. coli is cultivated in a chemostat operated at a dilution rate of $0.2\text{ h}^{-1}$. The values of biomass yield due to oxygen consumption and the steady state biomass concentration are $0.2\text{ g.g}^{-1}$ and $10\text{ g.L}^{-1}$, respectively. The oxygen transfer rate (in $\text{g.L}^{-1}.\text{h}^{-1}$) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q46

NAT[2 Marks]

Aqueous two-phase extraction is used to recover $\alpha$-amylase from a solution. A polypropylene glycol-dextran mixture is added and the solution separates into upper and lower phases. The partition coefficient is 4.0 and the ratio of upper to lower phase volume is 5.0. The enzyme recovery or yield (in percentage, rounded off to the nearest integer) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q47

NAT[2 Marks]

E. coli cultivated at 298 K uptakes an uncharged compound (A) by passive diffusion. The intracellular and extracellular concentrations of A are 0.001 M and 0.1 M, respectively. If the value of the ideal gas constant R is $1.9872\text{ cal.mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$, the free-energy change (in $\text{kcal.mol}^{-1}$) for this passive diffusion of A (rounded off to two decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q48

NAT[2 Marks]

Chemostat with cell recycle schematic... If $\frac{X_{0}}{X_{1}}=1.5,\frac{F_{r}}{F_{0}}=0.7$ and $X_{1}$ is $7.3\text{ g.L}^{-1}$, the value of X (in $\text{g.L}^{-1}$, rounded off to one decimal place) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q49

NAT[2 Marks]

The values of the consistency index 'K' and the flow behavior index 'n' of a dilatant fluid are 0.415 (in CGS units) and 1.23, respectively. The value of the apparent viscosity (in $\text{g.cm}^{-1}.\text{s}^{-1}$) of this fluid at a shear rate of $60\text{s}^{-1}$ (rounded off to the nearest integer) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q50

NAT[2 Marks]

An evaporator is insulated using glass wool material of 0.15 m thickness. The inner most surface and the outer surface of the insulation are at $700^{\circ}\text{C}$ and $80^{\circ}\text{C}$, respectively. The mean thermal conductivity of the glass wool under these conditions is $0.29\text{ W.m}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$. The rate of heat loss (in W) through $1.2~\text{m}^{2}$ of the evaporator wall surface (rounded off to the nearest integer) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q51

NAT[2 Marks]

A proportional controller is used to control the temperature of an autoclave from $60^{\circ}\text{C}$ to $130^{\circ}\text{C}$. If the proportional band setting of the controller is 25%, the proportional gain value is

Explanation

Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology

5 Questions

GATE→2023→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Animal Biotechnology

Q52

MCQ[1 Mark]

In hybridoma technology, which one of the following enzymes is absent in the myeloma cells that are used for monoclonal antibody production?

(A)

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

(B)

Alanine aminotransferase

(C)

Triose phosphate isomerase

(D)

Glycosyltransferase

Explanation

GATE→2023→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q53

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following plant growth regulators facilitate adventitious root formation?

(A)

Auxin

(B)

Zeatin

(C)

Dihydrozeatin

(D)

Kinetin

Explanation

GATE→2023→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Animal Biotechnology

Q54

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE about induced pluripotent stem cells?

(A)

They can self-renew

(B)

They require specific signals to maintain their stemness

(C)

They cannot be genetically manipulated

(D)

They can form organoids in vitro

Explanation

GATE→2023→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q55

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following is(are) plant protoplast fusogenic agent(s)?

(A)

Sodium nitrate

(B)

Polyvinyl alcohol

(C)

Polyethylene glycol

(D)

Bromoxynil

Explanation

GATE→2023→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q56

MSQ[2 Marks]

Direct DNA transfer method(s) used for plant genetic engineering is(are)

(A)

microparticle bombardment

(B)

electroporation

(C)

polyethylene glycol treatment

(D)

Agrobacterium-mediated transformation

Explanation

Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Analytical Tools

Q57

MCQ[1 Mark]

In ELISA, which of the following enzymes are conjugated to antibodies for detection of the analyte? P. Alkaline phosphatase Q. Trypsinase R. Horseradish peroxidase S. Amylase

(A)

P and R

(B)

P and Q

(C)

Q and S

(D)

R and S

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Molecular Tools

Q58

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following methods are used for detection of DNA and RNA, respectively?

(A)

Southern and Northern blotting

(B)

Southern and Western blotting

(C)

Northern and Southern blotting

(D)

Northern and Western blotting

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Computational Tools

Q59

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following programs is used for finding distantly related (or remote) protein homologs?

(A)

BLASTN

(B)

BLASTX

(C)

PSI-BLAST

(D)

TBLASTX

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Computational Tools

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is used for global alignment of two protein sequences?

(A)

Chou-Fasman method

(B)

Garnier-Osguthorpe-Robson (GOR) method

(C)

Needleman-Wunsch algorithm

(D)

Smith-Waterman algorithm

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Analytical Tools

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following methods CANNOT be used to determine the secondary structure content of a protein?

(A)

Circular dichroism spectroscopy

(B)

Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy

(C)

Mass spectrometry

(D)

X-ray crystallography

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Recombinant DNA Technology

Q62

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following vector(s) is (are) used to clone a DNA fragment of size 220 kb?

(A)

Bacterial artificial chromosome

(B)

Yeast artificial chromosome

(C)

Cosmids

(D)

pUC19 plasmid

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Computational Tools

Q63

NAT[2 Marks]

If there are three unrooted trees for four protein sequences, the number of rooted trees for the same number of sequences is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Analytical Tools

Q64

NAT[2 Marks]

A protein has three identical sites arranged at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. If one site is filled with a dye (donor), the measured quantum yield $(\phi_{D})$ is 0.5. Filling one site with a donor dye and a second site with an acceptor dye results in $\phi_{D}$ of 0.25. The measured $\phi_{D}$ of one site filled with donor and the other two sites filled with acceptor dye (rounded off to three decimal places) is

Explanation

GATE→2023→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Molecular Tools

Q65

NAT[2 Marks]

A dNTP master-mix is prepared by combining $40~\mu\text{L}$ of each 20mM dNTP stock (dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP). 4 $\mu\text{L}$ of this dNTP master-mix is added to a PCR mix and the final volume is adjusted to $50~\mu\text{L}$. The concentration (in $\mu\text{M}$) of total dNTPs in the PCR mix is

Explanation