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General Aptitude(10)Engineering Mathematics(9)General Biology(6)Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology(10)Fundamentals of Biological Engineering(16)Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology(8)Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology(6)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

If '->' denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [dry -> arid -> parched] is analogous to [diet -> fast -> __]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(A)

starve

(B)

reject

(C)

feast

(D)

deny

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

If two variables x and y are such that $(x+y)$ is proportional to $\frac{x}{y}$, then $\frac{x}{y}$

(A)

depends on both x and y

(B)

depends only on x and not on y

(C)

depends only on y and not on x

(D)

is a constant

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider the following sample of numbers: 9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13 The median of the sample is

(A)

13.5

(B)

14

(C)

11

(D)

18.7

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

The number of coins of ₹1, ₹2, and ₹5 denominations that a person has are in the ratio 5:3:13. Of the total money in coins, the percentage of money in ₹5 coins is

(A)

option A

(B)

14 2/7 %

(C)

30%

(D)

option D (or equivalent C from key)

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

For positive non-zero real variables p and q, if $$\log (p^{2}+q^{2})=\log~p+\log~q+2~log~3,$$ then, the value of $\frac{p^{4}+q^{4}}{p^{2}q^{2}}$ is

(A)

79

(B)

81

(C)

9

(D)

83

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)-(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks. Steve was advised to keep (i) _____ before heading to bat; for, while he had a head (ii) _____ batting, he could only do so with a cool head (iii) _____ his shoulders.

(A)

option A

(B)

option B

(C)

(i) down, (ii) out, (iii) on (or matching option C)

(D)

option D

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions $54\text{ cm} \times 4\text{ cm}$ is taken. The two longer edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken. Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is

(A)

$1/\pi$

(B)

$2/\pi$

(C)

$3/\pi$

(D)

$4/\pi$

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macronutrients to a typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person. Saturated fat: 20%, Trans fat: 5%, Carbohydrates: 35%, Unsaturated fat: 20%, Proteins: 20%. Energy densities (kcal/g): Fats = 9. The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is

(A)

44.4

(B)

77.8

(C)

100

(D)

3,600

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

A rectangular paper of $20\text{ cm} \times 8\text{ cm}$ is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final folded sheet (in cm) is

(A)

18

(B)

24

(C)

20

(D)

21

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of symmetry is

(A)

6

(B)

4

(C)

5

(D)

7

Explanation

Engineering Mathematics

9 Questions

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

A value of k for which the linear equations $(k-1)x+3y=0$ and $2x+ky=0$ have a non-zero solution is

(A)

1

(B)

2

(C)

3

(D)

4

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

The value of the series at $x = \dots$ [Expression: $1+\sin~x+\cos^{2}x+\sin^{3}x+\cdot\cdot\cdot$]

(A)

1 / (sqrt(2) + 1)

(B)

sqrt(2) / (sqrt(2) + 1)

(C)

1 / (sqrt(2) - 1)

(D)

other matching option D

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations

Q13

MCQ[1 Mark]

The solution of the differential equation $\frac{dy}{dx}=y+e^{-x}$ that satisfies $y(0)=-\frac{1}{2}$ is

(A)

$-\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}$

(B)

$-\frac{1}{2}e^{x}$

(C)

$-\frac{1}{2}e^{-x}$

(D)

$-\frac{1}{2}e^{\frac{x}{2}}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q14

MCQ[1 Mark]

The six faces of a cube (die) are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, and it is rolled once. An outcome is the observed number on the top face. If the probability of getting an odd number as an outcome is twice that of an even number, then the probability of getting a number less than 3 is

(A)

1/9

(B)

1/3

(C)

4/9

(D)

other matching option C

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q15

MCQ[1 Mark]

Let $\vec{OR}$ be the vector that is perpendicular to the vectors $\vec{OP}=2\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+\hat{k}$ and $\vec{OQ}=-2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}$. If the length of the vector $\vec{OR}$ is $\alpha\sqrt{3}$, then $\alpha$ is

(A)

3

(B)

4

(C)

5

(D)

6

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q16

NAT[2 Marks]

If $\vec{v}=\begin{pmatrix} 2 \\ 2 \\ 2 \end{pmatrix}$ is an eigenvector of the matrix $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 \end{pmatrix}$ corresponding to the non-zero eigenvalue $\lambda$, then the value of $\lambda$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q17

NAT[2 Marks]

The value of the limit $\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{x}{2}\ln\left(1+\frac{2024}{x}\right)$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

Let $y(x)=x^{2}\ln~x$ for $x>0$, be a solution of $x^{2}\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}+4y=\alpha x\frac{dy}{dx}$. Then the value of $\alpha$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Numerical Methods

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

The absolute relative error in evaluating the integral $\int_{0}^{1}x^{2}dx$ by the trapezoidal rule with the step size 0.25 is $\%$ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

General Biology

6 Questions

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

2-mercaptoethanol breaks the ____ covalent bond between light and heavy chains of an immunoglobulin molecule.

(A)

-N

(B)

-O

(C)

S-C

(D)

S-S

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q21

MCQ[1 Mark]

An element that is present in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside is

(A)

carbon

(B)

nitrogen

(C)

oxygen

(D)

phosphorous

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q22

MCQ[1 Mark]

Krebs (TCA) cycle is ____ pathway.

(A)

only an anabolic

(B)

only a catabolic

(C)

an amphibolic

(D)

a pyogenic

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Microbiology

Q23

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the disease (Column I) with its biological vector (Column II). **Column I** P. Chagas disease Q. Trypanosomiasis R. Leishmaniasis S. Yellow Fever **Column II** 1. Tsetse flies 2. Mosquitoes 3. Sandflies 4. Reduviid bugs

(A)

P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B)

P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(C)

P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2

(D)

P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q24

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statements is/are correct about an uncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme?

(A)

It binds to the substrate binding site of the enzyme only

(B)

It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex only

(C)

It reduces the $V_{max}$ of the enzyme

(D)

It binds to both free enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Biology→Biochemistry

Q25

NAT[2 Marks]

The free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at $25^{\circ}\text{C}$ is $-32.2\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$. The free energy change for hydrolysis of $\alpha$-glycerophosphate to glycerol is $-8.2\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ at $25^{\circ}\text{C}$. Using the above information, the free energy change for the formation of $\alpha$-glycerophosphate from glycerol and ATP is $\text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ (Answer in integer).

Explanation

Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology

10 Questions

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q26

MCQ[1 Mark]

Mendel's 'law of segregation' is observed in ____ during gamete formation.

(A)

mitochondrial genes

(B)

alleles of a gene

(C)

linked genes

(D)

endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q27

MCQ[1 Mark]

Post-translational modification of proteins is observed in

(A)

Golgi complex

(B)

mitochondria

(C)

peroxisomes

(D)

cytoplasm

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q28

MCQ[1 Mark]

During normal embryonic development of the mice paw, elimination of cells from the inter-digital space is due to

(A)

apoptosis

(B)

meiosis

(C)

mutagenesis

(D)

necrosis

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q29

MCQ[1 Mark]

If a denatured protein of human origin is renatured, ____ structure will recognize the original function

(A)

primary

(B)

secondary

(C)

tertiary

(D)

quaternary

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q30

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the enzyme (Column I) with its corresponding function (Column II). **Column I** P. Primase Q. Reverse transcriptase R. RNA Replicase S. DNA Polymerase III **Column II** 1. RNA dependent RNA synthesis 2. DNA dependent DNA synthesis 3. RNA dependent DNA synthesis 4. DNA dependent RNA synthesis

(A)

P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B)

P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(C)

P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(D)

P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q31

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the genetic disorder (Column I) with its molecular basis (Column II). **Column I** P. Sickle-cell anemia Q. Xeroderma pigmentosum R. Tay-Sachs disease S. Down Syndrome **Column II** 1. Mutation in nucleotide excision repair 2. Trisomy of chromosome 21 3. Mutation in $\beta$-globin gene 4. Mutation in hexosaminidase A gene

(A)

P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3

(B)

P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(C)

P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D)

P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Genetics and Evolutionary Biology

Q32

MCQ[2 Marks]

____ is an example of neutral evolution.

(A)

Genetic drift

(B)

Directional selection

(C)

Disruptive selection

(D)

Parallel evolution

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Cell Biology

Q33

MSQ[2 Marks]

Under which of the following conditions, a mammalian somatic cell fails to undergo mitosis during cell cycle?

(A)

Initiation of cell plate formation

(B)

Incomplete DNA replication

(C)

Chiasmata formation

(D)

Irreparable DNA damage

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q34

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statements regarding the below mentioned mRNA sequence is/are TRUE? 5'-UGAUGAGCCUUAACCGGGAACGAAUUUAAG-3'

(A)

It contains nine codons in the reading frame

(B)

It contains ten codons in the reading frame

(C)

It codes for eight amino acids

(D)

It codes for nine amino acids

Explanation

GATE→2024→Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology→Molecular Biology

Q35

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following conditions induce(s) the expression of $\beta$-galactosidase gene in the lac operon?

(A)

Absence of glucose

(B)

Absence of lactose

(C)

Presence of glucose

(D)

Presence of lactose

Explanation

Fundamentals of Biological Engineering

16 Questions

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

In adsorption chromatography, the adsorption of uncharged solute molecules onto a silica-based stationary phase is by

(A)

covalent bonds

(B)

electrostatic interactions

(C)

ionic bonds

(D)

van der Waals forces

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q37

MCQ[1 Mark]

The transfer function of a process is $G(s)=\frac{K_{p}}{\tau_{p}s+1},$ where $K_{p}$ is the gain and $\tau_{p}$ is the time constant. This is a

(A)

first order process

(B)

multi-capacity

(C)

purely capacitive

(D)

second order

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q38

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of thermodynamics?

(A)

In a closed system, neither mass nor energy is transferred across the system boundary

(B)

In a closed system, both mass and energy can be transferred across the system boundary

(C)

The total energy of the system is the sum of kinetic and potential energies

(D)

In a closed system, only energy can be transferred across the system boundary and not mass

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q39

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is correct about Reynolds Number ($N_{Re}$) in a stirred tank bioreactor?

(A)

$N_{Re}$ is independent of the viscosity of the medium

(B)

In laminar flow, mixing time increases with an increase in $N_{Re}$

(C)

$N_{Re}$ is inversely proportional to the impeller speed

(D)

In turbulent flow, mixing time is independent of $N_{Re}$ mixing

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q40

NAT[1 Mark]

The degree of reduction (reductance) for oxalic acid $(C_{2}H_{2}O_{4})$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q41

NAT[1 Mark]

If the rate at which E. coli divides is $0.5\text{ h}^{-1}$, then its doubling time is h.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q42

NAT[1 Mark]

The decimal reduction time of a microbe during sterilization at $120^{\circ}\text{C}$ with a first order thermal death rate constant of $1\text{ min}^{-1}$ will be min (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q43

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following factors can affect the growth of a microbial culture in a batch cultivation process?

(A)

pH of the medium

(B)

Osmolarity of the medium

(C)

Dissolved oxygen concentration

(D)

Vessel color (or similar)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q44

MSQ[2 Marks]

Under complete cell washout condition of a chemostat with sterile feed, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A)

Biomass concentration in the reactor is maximum

(B)

Substrate concentration in the exit stream is less than that in the inlet stream

(C)

Substrate concentration in the exit stream is equal to that in the inlet stream

(D)

Substrate concentration in the exit stream is zero

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Upstream and Downstream Processing

Q45

NAT[2 Marks]

Fermentation medium is cooled from $121^{\circ}\text{C}$ to $30^{\circ}\text{C}$ in a double pipe heat exchanger. If cold water is flowing in the counter-current direction and is heated from $10^{\circ}\text{C}$ to $70^{\circ}\text{C}$, then the Log-Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) is $^{\circ}\text{C}$ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q46

NAT[2 Marks]

Aspergillus niger is grown in a 10,000 L stirred batch bioreactor under aerated conditions to produce citric acid. At steady state oxygen transfer conditions, the specific oxygen uptake rate of the organism and the volumetric mass transfer coefficient are $1\times 10^{-4}$ g oxygen consumed s$^{-1}$ (per g biomass) and $60\text{ min}^{-1}$, respectively. If the oxygen solubility is $8\times 10^{-3}\text{ kg m}^{-3}$ under the operating conditions, based only on oxygen dynamics, the maximum possible cell concentration is $\text{kg m}^{-3}$ (Answer in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q47

NAT[2 Marks]

Ethanol is produced in a 10,000 L stirred bioreactor using an impeller of diameter 1 m. The density and viscosity of fermentation broth are $1000\text{ kg m}^{-3}$ and 1 cp, respectively. Using the data, the power required for the stirrer to operate at 300 rpm is kW (Answer in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q48

NAT[2 Marks]

E. coli is inoculated in a shake flask containing nutrient rich medium. The initial number of viable cells in the medium is $10^2$. After few hours, the number of viable cells is $10^6$. Assuming cell divides by binary fission, the number of generations that have taken place is (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q49

NAT[2 Marks]

A fermentor is filled with medium at a rate of $1\text{ L min}^{-1}$. A leak develops at the bottom of the fermentor when the medium in the fermentor reaches 200 L. The rate of medium leakage is $2t\text{ L min}^{-1}$, where 't' is the time at which the leak begins. The volume of medium in the fermentor after 10 min of leakage is L (Answer in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q50

NAT[2 Marks]

A fed batch process is running at quasi-steady state with respect to substrate and biomass concentration. At 2 h, the culture volume is 500 L with a constant sterile inlet feed at $50\text{ L h}^{-1}$ of glucose. The culture kinetic parameters $\mu_{m}$ and $K_{S}$ are $0.2\text{ h}^{-1}$ and $0.1\text{ g L}^{-1}$, respectively. The substrate concentration in the reactor will be $\text{g L}^{-1}$ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Fundamentals of Biological Engineering→Bioreaction Engineering

Q51

NAT[2 Marks]

Consider scale-up of fungal fermentation from a 20 L model-type to 20,000 L prototype stirred tank reactor. The model-type and prototype have the same aspect ratio during scale-up. The impeller speed in the model-type is 500 rpm and the scale-up criterion is constant shear. The impeller speed in the prototype reactor will be rpm (Answer in integer).

Explanation

Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology

8 Questions

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Microbial Biotechnology

Q52

MCQ[1 Mark]

The relationship that involves the exchange of nutrients between two different species for their mutual growth is called

(A)

antagonism

(B)

commensalism

(C)

parasitism

(D)

syntrophism

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Animal Biotechnology

Q53

MCQ[1 Mark]

A cultured skin fibroblast cell of a goat 'P' was fused with an enucleated ovum of a goat 'Q'. The resultant activated early embryo was then transplanted into a pseudopregnant (surrogate) female goat 'R' of the same strain as 'Q'. On completion of gestation, a female goat 'S' was born. With the exception of mitochondrial DNA, 'S' is a clone of

(A)

Only P

(B)

Only Q

(C)

Only R

(D)

Both P and R

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Animal Biotechnology

Q54

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is an insect cell line?

(A)

HEK 293

(B)

Sf9

(C)

DH5\alpha

(D)

CHO

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Microbial Biotechnology

Q55

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the industrial enzyme (Column I) with its application (Column II). **Column I** P. Lipase Q. Ficin R. Amylase S. Glucosidase **Column II** 1. Maltose syrup production 2. Oil degradation 3. Oligosaccharide/monosaccharide production 4. Meat tenderization

(A)

P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B)

P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(C)

P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(D)

P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Animal Biotechnology

Q56

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the item (Column I) with its corresponding use (Column II). **Column I** P. Glutamine Q. Trypsin R. Hypoxanthine S. Neomycin **Column II** 1. Detachment of adherent cells 2. Selection of transfected mammalian cell lines 3. Source of carbon and nitrogen in animal cell culture media 4. A component of medium for selection of hybridoma in monoclonal antibody production

(A)

P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(B)

P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(C)

P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

(D)

P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q57

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following plant-based secondary metabolites belong(s) to the class of alkaloids?

(A)

Ajmalicine

(B)

Azadirachtin

(C)

Camptothecin

(D)

Vinblastine

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q58

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following is/are considered as biotic elicitor(s) in plant cell culture?

(A)

Cellulase

(B)

Chitin

(C)

Chitosan

(D)

Mercuric chloride

Explanation

GATE→2024→Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology→Plant Biotechnology

Q59

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following is/are synthetic auxin(s) that does/do NOT occur naturally?

(A)

2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

(B)

Indole-3-acetic acid

(C)

Indole-3-butyric acid

(D)

1-Naphthaleneacetic acid

Explanation

Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology

6 Questions

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Recombinant DNA Technology

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following bacteriophages has a genome composed of single stranded circular DNA?

(A)

\Phi X174

(B)

\lambda

(C)

T4

(D)

M13 (Wait, M13 is ssDNA, phiX174 is ssDNA. Let's check options: A is phiX174)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Molecular Tools

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is the basic principle of Sanger's DNA sequencing method?

(A)

Chain termination by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides

(B)

Chain elongation by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides

(C)

Release of inorganic pyrophosphate

(D)

Chain cleavage by modification of dideoxynucleotides

Explanation

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Computational Tools

Q62

MCQ[1 Mark]

Codon optimization for heterologous expression in E. coli can code for a

(A)

protein with original function

(B)

protein with altered function

(C)

RNA with coding sequence

(D)

RNA with regulatory function

Explanation

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Molecular Tools

Q63

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the chemical (Column I) with its use (Column II). **Column I** P. Diethylpyrocarbonate Q. Cesium chloride R. Ethidium bromide S. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid **Column II** 1. Chelation of magnesium ion during DNA purification 2. Prevention of RNA degradation in aqueous environment 3. Separation of DNA by density gradient centrifugation 4. Staining of RNA in agarose gel

(A)

P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(B)

P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(C)

P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(D)

P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

Explanation

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Analytical Tools

Q64

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the item in Column I with the corresponding technique in Column II. **Column I** P. Blue laser Q. Tungsten filament R. $^{15}\text{N}$ labelled protein S. Polyacrylamide **Column II** 1. Electron microscopy 2. Fluorescence activated cell sorting 3. Electrophoresis 4. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

(A)

P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(B)

P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(C)

P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D)

P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Explanation

GATE→2024→Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology→Molecular Tools

Q65

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following features help(s) in distinguishing alleles using restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)?

(A)

Differences in the number of recognition sites for a given restriction enzyme

(B)

Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo recombination

(C)

Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo segregation

(D)

Differences in the number of tandem repeats

Explanation