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General Aptitude(10)Engineering Mathematics(7)Structural Engineering(10)Geotechnical Engineering(8)Water Resources Engineering(9)Environmental Engineering(5)Transportation Engineering(6)Geomatics Engineering(5)Construction Materials and Management(4)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

If '→' denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [simmer → seethe → smolder] is analogous to [break → raze → ___].

(A)

obfuscate

(B)

obliterate

(C)

fracture

(D)

fissure

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

In a locality, houses are numbered with consecutive odd integers starting from 301 on one side and consecutive even integers starting from 302 on the other. If the difference of the sum of house-numbers between the two sides is 27, the number of houses on each side is

(A)

27

(B)

52

(C)

54

(D)

26

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

For positive integers $p$ and $q$, with $\frac{p}{q} \neq 1$, $(\frac{p}{q})^{\frac{p}{q}} = p^{(\frac{p}{q}-1)}$. Then,

(A)

q^p = p^q

(B)

q^p = p^(2q)

(C)

sqrt(q) = sqrt(p)

(D)

p-th root of q = q-th root of p

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the given options is a possible value of $x$ in the following sequence? 3, 7, 15, $x$, 63, 127, 255

(A)

35

(B)

40

(C)

45

(D)

31

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

On a given day, how many times will the second-hand and the minute-hand of a clock cross each other during the clock time 12:05:00 hours to 12:55:00 hours?

(A)

51

(B)

49

(C)

50

(D)

55

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Select the best grammatical match for blanks (i) to (iv) in the provided athletic text passage.

(A)

(i) hold, (ii) waits, (iii) culminates, (iv) pivot

(B)

(i) holds, (ii) wait, (iii) culminates, (iv) pivot

(C)

(i) hold, (ii) wait, (iii) culminate, (iv) pivots

(D)

(i) holds, (ii) waits, (iii) culminate, (iv) pivots

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical chairs. Unique arrangements such that each person sits next to their twin:

(A)

12

(B)

14

(C)

10

(D)

28

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

Using the provided power generation chart and capacity factor formula, which technology has the highest Capacity Factor?

(A)

T1

(B)

T2

(C)

T3

(D)

T4

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

In the $4 \times 4$ array shown, each cell represents the count of neighboring crosses. The maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is

(A)

0

(B)

1

(C)

2

(D)

3

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

During half-moon phase, Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. If Moon-Earth-Sun angle is $89.85^{\circ}$, the ratio of Earth-Sun to Earth-Moon distances is closest to

(A)

328

(B)

382

(C)

238

(D)

283

Explanation

Engineering Mathematics

7 Questions

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Numerical Methods

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

The smallest positive root of the equation $x^5 - 5x^4 - 10x^3 + 50x^2 + 9x - 45 = 0$ lies in the range

(A)

0 < x <= 2

(B)

2 < x <= 4

(C)

6 <= x <= 8

(D)

10 <= x <= 100

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Partial Differential Equations (PDE)

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

Partial differential equation integration and general solution identification.

(A)

$u = x^2 + f(y) + g(x)$

(B)

$u = x^2 + x f(y) + h(y)$

(C)

$u = x^2 + x f(y) + g(x)$

(D)

$u = x^2 + f(y) + y g(x)$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q13

MCQ[1 Mark]

Probability a student passes only Math is 1/6, only English is 4/9, both is 1/3. Probability of passing in at least one subject is

(A)

17/18

(B)

11/18

(C)

14/18

(D)

1/18

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Partial Differential Equations (PDE)

Q14

MSQ[1 Mark]

For the partial differential equation $x \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} + y \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y^2} = \frac{x^2 + y^2}{2}$, which option(s) is/are CORRECT?

(A)

elliptic for x > 0 and y > 0

(B)

parabolic for x > 0 and y > 0

(C)

elliptic for x = 0 and y > 0

(D)

hyperbolic for x < 0 and y > 0

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Numerical Methods

Q15

NAT[1 Mark]

Consider tabular data for $f(x)$. The value of $f(1.5)$ estimated using second-order Newton's interpolation formula is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q16

MCQ[2 Marks]

What are the eigenvalues of the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 4 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}$?

(A)

1, 2, 5

(B)

1, 3, 4

(C)

-5, 1, 2

(D)

-5, -1, 2

Explanation

GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q17

MCQ[2 Marks]

Vector field $\vec{p}$ and scalar field $r$ given. Consider statements P (curl of $\vec{p}$ is zero) and Q (gradient of $r$ is null vector). Which option is CORRECT?

(A)

Both P and Q are FALSE

(B)

P is TRUE and Q is FALSE

(C)

P is FALSE and Q is TRUE

(D)

Both P and Q are TRUE

Explanation

Structural Engineering

10 Questions

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Solid Mechanics

Q18

MCQ[1 Mark]

The 3D state of stress at a point is $\sigma = \text{diag}(10, 40, 0)$ MPa. The maximum shear stress at the point is

(A)

20 MPa

(B)

15 MPa

(C)

5 MPa

(D)

25 MPa

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Steel Structures

Q19

MSQ[1 Mark]

Structural steel design and behavior principles select correct statements.

(A)

Option A

(B)

Option B

(C)

Option C

(D)

Option D

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Concrete Structures

Q20

MSQ[1 Mark]

Consider a balanced doubly-reinforced concrete section. If material properties remain unchanged, for which case(s) will the section become under-reinforced?

(A)

Area of tension reinforcement is increased

(B)

Area of compression reinforcement is increased

(C)

Area of tension reinforcement is decreased

(D)

Area of compression reinforcement is decreased

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Structural Analysis

Q21

NAT[1 Mark]

The plane frame has fixed support at A, hinge support at F, and roller support at I. Neglecting axial deformations, the degree of kinematic indeterminacy is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Solid Mechanics

Q22

MCQ[2 Marks]

Find the correct match between the plane stress states (P, Q, R, S) and Mohr's circles (I, II, III, IV).

(A)

(P)-(III); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(I); (S)-(II)

(B)

(P)-(III); (Q)-(II); (R)-(I); (S)-(IV)

(C)

(P)-(I); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(III); (S)-(II)

(D)

(P)-(I); (Q)-(II); (R)-(III); (S)-(IV)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Structural Analysis

Q23

MCQ[2 Marks]

The continuous beam with a hinge, supports at A, B, and C, and UDL $q$ between A and B has support reactions:

(A)

$R_A = \frac{ql}{2}$; $R_B = \frac{5ql}{2}$; $R_C = -ql$

(B)

$R_A = -ql$; $R_B = \frac{5ql}{2}$; $R_C = \frac{ql}{2}$

(C)

$R_A = -\frac{ql}{2}$; $R_B = \frac{5ql}{2}$; $R_C = 0$

(D)

$R_A = \frac{ql}{2}$; $R_B = ql$; $R_C = \frac{ql}{2}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Solid Mechanics

Q24

MCQ[2 Marks]

A fixed-end shaft PQR subjected to torque T at Q. If $T_P/T_R = 4$ and $J_1/J_2 = 2$, the ratio of lengths $L_1/L_2$ is

(A)

0.50

(B)

0.25

(C)

1.00

(D)

2.00

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Structural Analysis

Q25

NAT[2 Marks]

Plane truss with specified pin and roller supports subjected to 10 kN vertical and horizontal loads. The magnitude of vertical reaction at support L is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Concrete Structures

Q26

NAT[2 Marks]

An inverted T-shaped prestressed beam with prestressing force at bottom kern point. Additional cracking moment (in kN-m) carried by B1 compared to B2 is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Structural Engineering→Concrete Structures

Q27

NAT[2 Marks]

A slab panel of effective depth 250 mm is reinforced with 0.2% main reinforcement using 8 mm diameter bars. Uniform center-to-center spacing (in mm) is

Explanation

Geotechnical Engineering

8 Questions

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Shallow & Deep Foundations

Q28

MCQ[1 Mark]

A 2 m wide strip footing is founded in pure clay ($c_u = 40$ kPa). Due to seasonal water table fluctuations, net ultimate bearing capacity will

(A)

remain the same

(B)

decrease

(C)

increase

(D)

become zero

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Soil Properties, Classification & Seepage

Q29

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider statements P (Soil particles close to origin are subrounded) and Q (Higher clay fraction increases swell potential). Which option is CORRECT?

(A)

Both P and Q are TRUE

(B)

P is TRUE and Q is FALSE

(C)

Both P and Q are FALSE

(D)

P is FALSE and Q is TRUE

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Soil Properties, Classification & Seepage

Q30

NAT[1 Mark]

An embankment soil has degree of saturation $S = 75\%$, specific gravity $G_s = 2.68$, moisture content $w = 17\%$. The dry unit weight (in $\text{kN/m}^3$) is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Sub-surface Investigations, Earth Pressure & Slope Stability

Q31

MCQ[2 Marks]

A smooth vertical retaining wall supports dry cohesionless backfill with friction angle $30^{\circ}$. Inclinations of failure planes for Rankine's active and passive conditions with major principal plane are

(A)

30° and 30°

(B)

60° and 60°

(C)

30° and 60°

(D)

60° and 30°

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Sub-surface Investigations, Earth Pressure & Slope Stability

Q32

MSQ[2 Marks]

Geotechnical SPT corrections and electrical resistivity tomography select correct statements.

(A)

Option A

(B)

Option B

(C)

Option C

(D)

Option D

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Compaction, Consolidation & Shear Strength

Q33

NAT[2 Marks]

Total primary consolidation settlement $S_c = 50$ mm. After 300 days, settlement is 10 mm. Additional time (in days) required to achieve 50% of $S_c$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Sub-surface Investigations, Earth Pressure & Slope Stability

Q34

NAT[2 Marks]

An infinite slope in cohesionless soil with seepage parallel to surface. Slope angle $30^{\circ}$, $\gamma_{sat} = 20\text{ kN/m}^3$, $\gamma_w = 10\text{ kN/m}^3$. Minimum angle of shearing resistance (in degrees) for critically stable condition is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geotechnical Engineering→Compaction, Consolidation & Shear Strength

Q35

NAT[2 Marks]

Skempton's pore pressure parameter B calculation from triaxial cell data.

Explanation

Water Resources Engineering

9 Questions

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydraulics

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

The number of degrees of freedom for a natural open channel flow with a mobile bed is

(A)

2

(B)

3

(C)

4

(D)

5

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydrology

Q37

NAT[1 Mark]

A 30 cm diameter well fully penetrates an unconfined aquifer of thickness 20 m and $k = 10$ m/day. Steady drawdowns at 10 m and 100 m are 5 m and 1 m. Pumping rate (in $\text{m}^3/\text{day}$) is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Fluid Mechanics

Q38

MCQ[2 Marks]

Flow velocity vector $\vec{V} = 3\hat{i} + (5x)\hat{j}$. The correct statement is:

(A)

Fluid is incompressible and flow is rotational

(B)

Fluid is incompressible and flow is irrotational

(C)

Fluid is compressible and flow is rotational

(D)

Fluid is compressible and flow is irrotational

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydrology

Q39

NAT[2 Marks]

Return period of an earthquake is 200 years. Assuming Poisson's distribution, the probability that it will be exceeded at least once in 50 years (%) is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Fluid Mechanics

Q40

NAT[2 Marks]

A tank with inflow and outflow mechanisms modeled by differential equation. Mass of salt (in grams) in the tank at 75% of its capacity is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydrology

Q41

NAT[2 Marks]

Ordinates of a 1-hour unit hydrograph given. Peak discharge (in $\text{m}^3/\text{s}$) for derived 3-hour UH is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydraulics

Q42

NAT[2 Marks]

Round bottom triangular canal with bed slope 1 in 200, Chezy coefficient $150\text{ m}^{1/2}/\text{s}$. Normal depth $y$ (in meters) for discharge $20\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$ is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Hydraulics

Q43

NAT[2 Marks]

A spillway has unit discharge $7.5\text{ m}^3/\text{s/m}$. Downstream flow depth is 0.5 m. Tail water depth (in meters) required to form hydraulic jump is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources Engineering→Fluid Mechanics

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

A $5\text{ m} \times 5\text{ m}$ closed tank containing water and oil connected to overhead reservoir. Total force (in kN) due to pressure on side PQR is

Explanation

Environmental Engineering

5 Questions

GATE→2024→Environmental Engineering→Municipal Solid Wastes

Q45

MCQ[1 Mark]

Match MSW components (P: Ferrous metals, Q: Aluminum/copper, R: Glass/ceramics, S: Food waste) with treatment/separation techniques.

(A)

P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii

(B)

P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i

(C)

P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i

(D)

P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Engineering→Air Pollution

Q46

MSQ[1 Mark]

The primary air pollutant(s) is/are

(A)

Sulphur dioxide

(B)

Sulphuric acid

(C)

Nitric oxide

(D)

Ozone

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Engineering→Air Pollution

Q47

MCQ[2 Marks]

Emission standard for HCl (at 11% $O_2$) is $50\text{ mg/Nm}^3$. Measured HCl is $42\text{ mg/Nm}^3$ at 13% $O_2$. Assuming 21% air oxygen, the CORRECT statement is:

(A)

No compliance, as corrected HCl emission is greater than standard

(B)

Compliance is there, corrected HCl emission is lesser

(C)

Compliance is there, no need to correction since O2 > 11%

(D)

No compliance, as O2 is greater than 11%

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Engineering→Water and Wastewater Quality and Treatment

Q48

NAT[2 Marks]

Activated carbon removes pollutant in mixed batch reactor with first-order rate 0.38 /day. Time (in days) required to remove 95% of pollutant is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Engineering→Water and Wastewater Quality and Treatment

Q49

NAT[2 Marks]

A water treatment plant treats 25 MLD water with natural alkalinity 4.0 mg/L as $CaCO_3$. $450\text{ kg/day}$ of $Ca(HCO_3)_2$ is required based on alum dosage. Quantity of pure quick lime CaO (in kg) per day is

Explanation

Transportation Engineering

6 Questions

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Transportation Infrastructure

Q50

MCQ[1 Mark]

Car at 60 km/h on 2% downward gradient. Obstacle 130 m ahead. Reaction time 2.5s, brake efficiency 60%, friction 0.7. Required stopping distance lies in range

(A)

126 to 130

(B)

41 to 45

(C)

33 to 37

(D)

75 to 79

Explanation

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Transportation Infrastructure

Q51

MCQ[1 Mark]

As per ICAO, basic runway length is increased by $x$ (%) for every $y$ (m) raise in elevation from MSL. The values are

(A)

7% and 300 m

(B)

10% and 1000 m

(C)

1% and 300 m

(D)

7% and 1000 m

Explanation

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Highway Pavements

Q52

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements related to bitumen is FALSE?

(A)

Kinematic viscosity measures resistance to flow of molten bitumen under gravity.

(B)

Softer grade bitumen possesses higher softening point than hard grade bitumen.

(C)

Flash point is lowest temperature where vapours catch flash.

(D)

Ductility test measures stretch.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Traffic Engineering

Q53

MCQ[2 Marks]

Free mean speed is $60\text{ km/h}$ and jam density spacing is 8 m ($k_j = 125\text{ veh/km}$). For linear speed-density relationship, maximum flow (in veh/h/lane) is

(A)

1875

(B)

938

(C)

2075

(D)

1038

Explanation

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Transportation Infrastructure

Q54

NAT[2 Marks]

Curved Broad Gauge section with radius 437 m and given train speed distribution. Gauge = 1750 mm. Required equilibrium cant (in mm) is

Explanation

GATE→2024→Transportation Engineering→Traffic Engineering

Q55

NAT[2 Marks]

Time-space domain trajectories of six vehicles. Mean speed of vehicles (in km/h) in the entire time-space domain is

Explanation

Geomatics Engineering

5 Questions

GATE→2024→Geomatics Engineering→Principles of Surveying & Cartography

Q56

MCQ[1 Mark]

If the number of sides resulting in a closed traverse is increased from three to four, the sum of the interior angles increases by

(A)

90°

(B)

180°

(C)

270°

(D)

360°

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geomatics Engineering→Principles of Surveying & Cartography

Q57

MCQ[1 Mark]

A surveyor observes a zenith angle of $93^{\circ}00'00''$ during a theodolite survey. The corresponding vertical angle is

(A)

-03°00'00''

(B)

+03°00'00''

(C)

-87°00'00''

(D)

+87°00'00''

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geomatics Engineering→Principles of Surveying & Cartography

Q58

MCQ[1 Mark]

Among the following statements relating the fundamental lines of a transit theodolite, which one is CORRECT?

(A)

The line of collimation must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis at its midpoint.

(B)

The axis of plate level must be perpendicular to the line of collimation.

(C)

The horizontal axis must lie in a plane parallel to the vertical axis.

(D)

The Vernier of vertical circle must read zero when line of collimation is vertical.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geomatics Engineering→Principles of Surveying & Cartography

Q59

MCQ[2 Marks]

A map is prepared with scale 1:1000 and contour interval 1 m. Distance between adjacent contours on map is 10 mm. Ground slope is

(A)

30%

(B)

10%

(C)

35%

(D)

40%

Explanation

GATE→2024→Geomatics Engineering→Principles of Surveying & Cartography

Q60

NAT[2 Marks]

A bird flies from point P (8 m above MSL) to point Q (3 m above MSL) parallel to ground. Ground surface falling gradient is 1 in 2. Horizontal distance (in meters) between P and Q is

Explanation

Construction Materials and Management

4 Questions

GATE→2024→Construction Materials and Management→Construction Materials

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

Concrete of characteristic strength 30 MPa is required. If 40 specimens are tested, the minimum number having at least 30 MPa strength should be

(A)

35

(B)

37

(C)

38

(D)

39

Explanation

GATE→2024→Construction Materials and Management→Construction Management

Q62

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider statements P (Preliminary estimate used for budgeting) and Q (Detailed estimate used for controlling costs). Which option is CORRECT?

(A)

Both P and Q are TRUE

(B)

P is TRUE and Q is FALSE

(C)

Both P and Q are FALSE

(D)

P is FALSE and Q is TRUE

Explanation

GATE→2024→Construction Materials and Management→Construction Management

Q63

MCQ[1 Mark]

The figure shows formwork shores S1 to S5 for casting a cantilever RC beam. The correct sequence of removing shores is

(A)

S1 S2 S3 S4 S5

(B)

S5 S4 S3 S2 S1

(C)

S3 S2 S4 S1 S5

(D)

S3 S4 S2 S5 S1

Explanation

GATE→2024→Construction Materials and Management→Construction Management

Q64

NAT[2 Marks]

Initial cost Rs. 1,00,000, salvage value Rs. 10,000, life 5 years. Difference in depreciation (in Rs.) computed using double-declining balance and straight-line method in Year-2 is

Explanation