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General Aptitude(10)Mathematics Foundation(9)Environmental Chemistry(4)Environmental Microbiology(5)Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics(9)Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management(9)Air and Noise Pollution(8)Solid and Hazardous Waste Management(5)Global and Regional Environmental Issues(3)Environmental Management and Sustainable Development(3)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

Mr. X speaks _____ Japanese _____ Chinese.

(A)

neither/or

(B)

either/nor

(C)

neither / nor

(D)

also/but

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R, and S in the proportion 5:2:4:3, respectively. If R gets 1000 more than S, what is the share of Q (in ₹)?

(A)

500

(B)

1000

(C)

1500

(D)

2000

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

A trapezium has vertices marked as P, Q, R and S (in that order anticlockwise). The side PQ is parallel to side SR. Further, it is given that, $PQ = 11$ cm, $QR = 4$ cm, $RS = 6$ cm and $SP = 3$ cm. What is the shortest distance between PQ and SR (in cm)?

(A)

1.80

(B)

2.40

(C)

4.20

(D)

5.76

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

The figure shows a grid formed by a collection of unit squares. The unshaded unit square in the grid represents a hole. What is the maximum number of squares without a "hole in the interior" that can be formed within the $4 \times 4$ grid using the unit squares as building blocks?

(A)

15

(B)

20

(C)

21

(D)

26

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

An art gallery engages a security guard to ensure that the items displayed are protected. The diagram below represents the plan of the gallery where boundary walls are opaque. The location the security guard posted is identified such that all the inner space (shaded region) is within the line of sight. Which one of the following correctly represents the set of ALL possible locations among P, Q, R and S, where the security guard can be posted?

(A)

P and Q

(B)

Q

(C)

Q and S

(D)

R and S

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Mosquitoes pose a threat to human health. Controlling mosquitoes using chemicals may have undesired consequences. In Florida, authorities have used genetically modified mosquitoes to control the overall mosquito population. It remains to be seen if this novel approach has unforeseen consequences. Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

(A)

Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes is better than using genetically modified mosquitoes because genetic engineering is dangerous

(B)

Using genetically modified mosquitoes is better than using chemicals to kill mosquitoes because they do not have any side effects

(C)

Both using genetically modified mosquitoes and chemicals have undesired consequences and can be dangerous

(D)

Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes may have undesired consequences but it is not clear if using genetically modified mosquitoes has any negative consequence

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

Consider the following inequalities: (i) $2x - 1 > 7$ (ii) $2x - 9 < 1$ Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

(A)

$x \le -4$

(B)

$-4 < x \le 4$

(C)

$4 < x < 5$

(D)

$x \ge 5$

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

Four points $P(0,1)$, $Q(0,-3)$, $R(-2,-1)$, and $S(2,-1)$ represent the vertices of a quadrilateral. What is the area enclosed by the quadrilateral?

(A)

4

(B)

$4\sqrt{2}$

(C)

8

(D)

$8\sqrt{2}$

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

In a class of five students P, Q, R, S and T, only one student is known to have copied in the exam. The disciplinary committee has investigated the situation and recorded the statements from the students as given below: - P: R has copied. - Q: S has copied. - R: P did not copy. - S: Only one of us is telling the truth. - T: R is telling the truth. Given that S never lies, the person who has copied in the exam is

(A)

R

(B)

P

(C)

Q

(D)

T

Explanation

GATE→2022→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

Consider the following square with the four corners and the center marked as P, Q, R, S and T respectively. Let X, Y and Z represent the following operations: - X: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the S-Q axis. - Y: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the P-R axis. - Z: rotation of the square by 90 degree clockwise with respect to the axis perpendicular, going into the screen and passing through the point T. Consider the following three distinct sequences of operation: (1) XYZZ, (2) XY, (3) ZZZZ. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)

The sequence of operations (1) and (2) are equivalent

(B)

The sequence of operations (1) and (3) are equivalent

(C)

The sequence of operations (2) and (3) are equivalent

(D)

The sequence of operations (1), (2) and (3) are equivalent

Explanation

Mathematics Foundation

9 Questions

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Probability and Statistics

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

A student reported following arsenic concentrations in water samples (mg/L): $0.10, 0.12, 0.20, 0.05, 0.40, 0.30, 0.35$. Which one of the following is a correct statement about arsenic concentration distribution?

(A)

Arsenic concentration distribution is symmetric

(B)

Arsenic concentration distribution is positively skewed

(C)

Arsenic concentration distribution is negatively skewed

(D)

Arsenic concentration is following Weibull distribution

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Probability and Statistics

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

X is normally distributed with following data ($25.8, 36.6, 26.3, 21.8, 27.2$). Select the correct statement about X:

(A)

Population mean $\le 25$ with 95% confidence

(B)

Population mean $\le 25$ with 100% confidence

(C)

Population mean $> 25$ with 95% confidence

(D)

Population mean $> 25$ with 100% confidence

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q13

MCQ[1 Mark]

Assuming $s > 0$; Laplace transform for $f(x) = \sin ax$ is

(A)

\frac{a}{s^2 + a^2}

(B)

\frac{s}{s^2 + a^2}

(C)

\frac{a}{s^2 - a^2}

(D)

\frac{s}{s^2 - a^2}

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Linear Algebra

Q14

MCQ[1 Mark]

Given P is $m \times n$ matrix, Q is $n \times l$ matrix, R and S are $n \times n$ matrices, and superscript T denotes transpose. Consider: Relationship 1: $(PQ)^T = Q^T P^T$ Relationship 2: $(RS)^{-1} = S^{-1} R^{-1}$ Which one of the following is correct?

(A)

Relationship 1 is false; Relationship 2 is false

(B)

Relationship 1 is true; Relationship 2 is false

(C)

Relationship 1 is true; Relationship 2 is true

(D)

Relationship 1 is false; Relationship 2 is true

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q15

NAT[1 Mark]

$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x} - 1}{x}$ is _____ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q16

MCQ[2 Marks]

Given $y = f(x)$; $\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + 4y = 0$; $y(0) = 0$; $\frac{dy}{dx}(0) = 1$. The problem is a/an

(A)

initial value problem having solution $y = x$

(B)

boundary value problem having solution $y = x$

(C)

initial value problem having solution $y = \frac{1}{2} \sin 2x$

(D)

boundary value problem having solution $y = \frac{1}{2} \sin 2x$

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Linear Algebra

Q17

MCQ[2 Marks]

Eigenvalues of the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ -2 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$ are

(A)

1 and 2

(B)

1 and 3

(C)

1 and -2

(D)

0 and 3

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

The area of the region (rounded off to one decimal place) enclosed between the curves $y = x$ and $y = 3\sqrt{x}$ and between the lines $x = 0$ and $x = 1$ is _____ units.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Mathematics Foundation→Probability and Statistics

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

An individual has four different email accounts. $60\%$ of emails come into his corporate account, $30\%$ come into his gmail account and remaining $10\%$ are equally divided into his yahoo and zoho accounts. Only $1\%$ of the emails in his corporate accounts are spam, whereas corresponding percentages for gmail, yahoo and zoho accounts are $2\%$, $3\%$ and $3\%$, respectively. Assuming that the same spam filter is used in all the four email accounts, the probability (in percentage, rounded off to one decimal place) of having a randomly selected email as spam is _____.

Explanation

Environmental Chemistry

4 Questions

GATE→2022→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

Carbon dioxide is used in recarbonation process. A solution has $1\text{ mole/L}$ supersaturated calcium carbonate. Estimated amount of carbon dioxide (in grams) needed to completely convert calcium carbonate to calcium ions in $1\text{ litre}$ solution is

(A)

44.000 gram

(B)

0.044 gram

(C)

40.000 gram

(D)

0.040 gram

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Chemistry→Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry

Q21

MSQ[1 Mark]

If G represents Gibbs free energy, select the correct statement(s):

(A)

If $\Delta G = 0$, reaction will proceed only in one direction

(B)

If $\Delta G = 0$, reaction will be in equilibrium

(C)

If $\Delta G < 0$, reaction will proceed forward

(D)

If $\Delta G > 0$, reaction will not proceed forward

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q22

NAT[2 Marks]

A solution has $0.001\text{ mole/L}$ zinc ions having pH of $6$. Solubility product of zinc hydroxide is given as $8 \times 10^{-18}\text{ (mole/L)}^3$. Ignoring activity corrections, the ratio (rounded off to two decimal places) of reaction coefficient to solubility product would be

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q23

NAT[2 Marks]

The Henry's law constant of $CO_2$ is $3.4 \times 10^{-2}\text{ M per atm}$ in neutral water at $25^\circ\text{C}$. The dissolved $CO_2$ ($CO_2 \cdot H_2O$) at equilibrium undergoes the following reactions: $CO_2 \cdot H_2O \rightleftharpoons H^+ + HCO_3^-$ ($K_1 = 4.3 \times 10^{-7}\text{ M}$) $HCO_3^- \rightleftharpoons H^+ + CO_3^{2-}$ ($K_2 = 4.7 \times 10^{-11}\text{ M}$) If ambient $CO_2$ concentration is $300\text{ ppm}$, the total dissolved $CO_2$ (in $\mu\text{M}$, rounded off to one decimal place) is

Explanation

Environmental Microbiology

5 Questions

GATE→2022→Environmental Microbiology→Growth and Control of Microorganisms

Q24

MCQ[1 Mark]

Ten litres of the sample was filtered through a membrane filter and the filter was transferred to solid agar media which supports growth of coliform organisms. After incubation at $37^\circ\text{C}$ for 48 hours, the agar plates showed an average of 64 colonies per plate. What was the average concentration of coliform organisms (in Colony Forming Units per unit volume) in the original water sample?

(A)

$64\text{ CFU/ml}$

(B)

$640\text{ CFU/ml}$

(C)

$6.4 \times 10^{-3}\text{ CFU/ml}$

(D)

$64 \times 10^{-3}\text{ CFU/ml}$

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Microbiology→Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Microorganisms

Q25

MCQ[1 Mark]

Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction is an analytical procedure used in detection of pathogenic microorganisms. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in this context?

(A)

It is used for identifying presence or absence of specific RNA in samples.

(B)

It is used only for identifying Corona Viruses, including SARS CoV2 in samples.

(C)

It cannot differentiate between viable and inactivated viruses.

(D)

It is based on conversion of RNA to DNA followed by DNA amplification.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Microbiology→Growth and Control of Microorganisms

Q26

MCQ[2 Marks]

For an exponentially growing microbial culture, the specific growth rate ($\mu$) is related to its doubling time ($t_d$) by which one of the following relations?

(A)

$t_d = \mu$

(B)

$t_d = \mu^2$

(C)

$t_d = \frac{1}{\mu} \ln 2$

(D)

$t_d = \frac{1}{2} \ln \mu$

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Microbiology→Growth and Control of Microorganisms

Q27

MCQ[2 Marks]

A microbial culture, with a specific growth rate of $\mu_1$ (per hour), is being grown in a continuous reactor at steady state with hydraulic retention time (HRT) of 24 hours. This reactor is subjected to a perturbation by reducing the HRT to 12 hours. The reactor recovers from the perturbation and comes to a new steady state with a new specific growth rate of $\mu_2$ (per hour). Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)

$\mu_1 = \mu_2$

(B)

$\mu_1 = 0.5 \mu_2$

(C)

$\mu_2 = 0.5 \mu_1$

(D)

$\mu_2 = e^{0.5} \mu_1$

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Microbiology→Cell Chemistry and Cell Biology

Q28

MSQ[2 Marks]

A typical plasmid-free bacterial cell having a single chromosome consists of ~55% protein, ~3% DNA and ~21% RNA... Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct with respect to the number of intracellular DNA, RNA and protein molecules?

(A)

$DNA = RNA = Protein \ge 2500$

(B)

$DNA = RNA = 1; Protein \ge 2500$

(C)

$DNA = 1; RNA = Protein \ge 2500$

(D)

$DNA = 1; RNA > Protein \ge 2500$

Explanation

Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics

9 Questions

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Surface Water Resources

Q29

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider the following statements: Statement 1: Goodrich method for reservoir routing is based on hydrologic flood routing method. Statement 2: Muskingum method for channel routing is based on hydraulic flood routing method. Which one of the following is correct?

(A)

Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is false

(B)

Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false

(C)

Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is true

(D)

Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Groundwater Resources

Q30

MCQ[1 Mark]

The correct order of hydraulic conductivity for the geologic formations is

(A)

Aquifer > Aquitard > Aquiclude > Aquifuge

(B)

Aquifer < Aquitard < Aquiclude < Aquifuge

(C)

Aquitard > Aquifer > Aquifuge > Aquiclude

(D)

Aquifer > Aquiclude > Aquitard > Aquifuge

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q31

MCQ[1 Mark]

Centrifugal pumps with suction pipe (shown by solid arrow) and delivery pipe (shown by dotted arrow) are shown in the figures. Choose the option that gives the correct connection

(A)

Option (A)

(B)

Option (B)

(C)

Option (C)

(D)

Option (D)

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Surface Water Resources

Q32

NAT[1 Mark]

The following figure shows a 2-hour unit hydrograph ($1\text{ cm}$ rainfall excess) for a catchment area of $540\text{ hectare}$. The peak discharge (in $\text{m}^3/\text{s}$, rounded off to one decimal place) of the above unit hydrograph is _____.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Surface Water Resources

Q33

NAT[2 Marks]

An isolated storm of 3 hours occurred over a catchment area in the following manner: - Area 1 (15%): Rainfall (0.4, 2.5, 0.5 cm), $W$-index = 1.6 cm/h - Area 2 (35%): Rainfall (0.8, 3.0, 1.0 cm), $W$-index = 2.1 cm/h - Area 3 (50%): Rainfall (0.8, 0.6, 2.6 cm), $W$-index = 1.9 cm/h Total rainfall excess (in cm, rounded off to one decimal place) over the catchment for the above storm is

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Groundwater Resources

Q34

NAT[2 Marks]

Two reservoirs having a difference of $20\text{ m}$ in their water surface elevations are connected through a confined aquifer (thickness $= 5\text{ m}$, length $= 2\text{ km}$, hydraulic conductivity $K = 3 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m/s}$, and porosity $\eta = 0.3$) as shown in the following figure. If the Reservoir 1 is contaminated by a pollutant then the time (in days, rounded off to one decimal place) taken by the pollutant to reach to the Reservoir 2 under advection will be

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q35

NAT[2 Marks]

A venturimeter along with a differential manometer was installed to measure flow in a water pipeline as shown in the following figure. Taking specific weight of water as $9810\text{ N/m}^3$, the pressure difference (in Pa, rounded off to one decimal place) between point Q and P is

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q36

NAT[2 Marks]

Two reservoirs having a difference of $10\text{ m}$ in their water surface elevations are connected by a pipeline (diameter $= 10\text{ cm}$, length $= 50\text{ m}$, and friction factor $f = 0.02$). If the last $25\text{ m}$ length of the pipeline is replaced by a same material pipe of diameter $20\text{ cm}$ then neglecting minor losses the discharge (in %, rounded off to one decimal place) will increase by

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q37

NAT[2 Marks]

The depth of flow (in m, rounded off to two decimal places) in a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel ($n = 1/80$) to carry a discharge of $64\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$ at bed slope $0.01$ is _____.

Explanation

Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management

9 Questions

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water and Wastewater Quality Parameters & River Pollution

Q38

MCQ[1 Mark]

Specific conductance is used in water analysis to indirectly estimate dissolved solids. The measurements used in the method accounts for

(A)

Cations only

(B)

All ions

(C)

Anions only

(D)

Un-ionized species

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water Treatment Methods & Distribution

Q39

MCQ[1 Mark]

A river water sample has pH of 4 and suspended solids concentration of $100\text{ mg/L}$. If, alum is chosen as a coagulant, what will be the coagulation mechanism?

(A)

Ionic layer compression only

(B)

Sweep coagulation and Polymer bridging

(C)

Polymer bridging only

(D)

Charge neutralization, surface adsorption, ionic layer compression

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Sewage Treatment, Sludge & Wastewater Management

Q40

MSQ[1 Mark]

For effluents generated by a molasses based distillery and wood based pulp and paper industry, which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct?

(A)

Both the effluents have dark colour.

(B)

Both the effluents have high toxicity.

(C)

Both the effluents generally have BOD greater than 15,000 ppm.

(D)

Both the effluents have high pH.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Kinetics and Reactor Design

Q41

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to a batch reactor?

(A)

No reactant is added after the reactor has started operation.

(B)

No product is withdrawn during the course of the reactor operation.

(C)

The reactor operates under steady state.

(D)

The reactor operation is carried out for a pre-specified duration.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water and Wastewater Quality Parameters & River Pollution

Q42

MSQ[2 Marks]

Average values of the re-aeration rate constant for river X and river Y are $0.92\text{ per day}$ and $1.12\text{ per day}$, respectively. Average de-oxygenation rate constants for the same rivers are $0.23\text{ per day}$ and $0.35\text{ per day}$ respectively. Then, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)

Self-purification capacity of river Y is more than that of river X.

(B)

Self-purification capacity of river X is more than that of river Y.

(C)

River Y has higher turbulence and/or higher velocity and/or higher algal growth compared to river X.

(D)

Pollutants in river X are more biodegradable than that in river Y.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Kinetics and Reactor Design

Q43

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct while comparing continuously stirred tank reactor (CSTR) and plug flow reactor (PFR)?

(A)

CSTR and PFR are normally operated under steady state condition.

(B)

There is complete homogeneity in the CSTR while there are concentration variations within the PFR.

(C)

The overall reaction carried out in a PFR is always higher than that in a CSTR for same total volume.

(D)

Reaction kinetics do not play any role in choosing between CSTR and PFR.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water Treatment Methods & Distribution

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

Clean water is passed through a bed of uniform spherical sand at a filtration velocity of $0.002\text{ m/sec}$. The sand grains are $0.4\text{ mm}$ in diameter and have a specific gravity of $2.65$. Bed depth is $0.67\text{ m}$ and porosity ($\eta$) is $0.35$. Given: water density $= 998.2\text{ kg/m}^3$; water dynamic viscosity $= 1.002 \times 10^{-3}\text{ Pa}\cdot\text{s}$. Friction factor ($f$) is given as: $f = 1.75 + \{150 \times (1 - \eta) / Re\}$. The headloss (in m, rounded off to three decimal places) calculated using the Carmen-Kozney equation is

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Sewage Treatment, Sludge & Wastewater Management

Q45

NAT[2 Marks]

A sewage treatment plant with a capacity of $10\text{ million litres per day (MLD)}$ is treating the sewage through an aerobic biological process. The inlet and outlet BOD are measured as $100$ and $30\text{ mg/l}$, respectively. If the mixed microbial culture has an observed biomass yield of $0.5\text{ g Volatile Suspended Solids (VSS)/g BOD}$, the sludge production rate (in kg per day, rounded off to one decimal place) when the plant is operating at $80\%$ capacity is

Explanation

GATE→2022→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water Treatment Methods & Distribution

Q46

NAT[2 Marks]

A centrifuge is processing $1000\text{ litres per hour}$ of water containing $2\text{ g per litre}$ of suspended solids. The thickened slurry coming out of the centrifuge has solids concentration of $20\text{ g per 100 ml}$. If the centrifuge has $99\%$ efficiency based on solids separation, the flow rate (in litres per hour, rounded off to one decimal place) of the supernatant stream will be

Explanation

Air and Noise Pollution

8 Questions

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Particulate Pollutants: Measurement and Control

Q47

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is most commonly used raw material in flue gas desulfurization units?

(A)

Limestone

(B)

Titanium Oxide

(C)

Fenton reagent

(D)

Beryllium Oxide

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Atmospheric Processes and Air Quality Parameters

Q48

MSQ[1 Mark]

$PM_{2.5}$ concentrations in ambient air can be measured using

(A)

Beta attenuation method

(B)

Chemiluminescence method

(C)

Gravimetric method

(D)

Non dispersive infrared spectroscopy method

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Particulate Pollutants: Measurement and Control

Q49

MCQ[2 Marks]

A bag filter is used for removal of particulate matter having a range of sizes. The correct sequence of air filtration mechanisms for their removal, in order of decreasing size, is

(A)

Diffusion, Impaction, Disintegration

(B)

Disintegration, Impaction, Interception

(C)

Diffusion, Impaction, Interception

(D)

Impaction, Interception, Diffusion

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Noise Pollution

Q50

MCQ[2 Marks]

A relatively calm room has background sound power level (SPL) of $30\text{ decibels (dB)}$. A television and a radio with SPL of $80\text{ dB}$ and $70\text{ dB}$, respectively, started operating simultaneously in this room. Given the reference sound power is $10^{-12}\text{ Watts}$, what will be the resulting SPL in the room, assuming all the sources operate independently?

(A)

180.0 dB

(B)

80.4 dB

(C)

82.4 dB

(D)

150.0 dB

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Atmospheric Processes and Air Quality Parameters

Q51

MSQ[2 Marks]

During night, in troposphere, which of the following is/are NOT correct?

(A)

$NO_2 + h\nu \rightarrow NO + O$

(B)

Most of the NOx (i.e., $NO + NO_2$) converts to NO

(C)

$NO + O_3 \rightarrow NO_2 + O_2$

(D)

Most of the NOx (i.e., $NO + NO_2$) converts to $NO_2$

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Atmospheric Processes and Air Quality Parameters

Q52

MSQ[2 Marks]

According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (Central Pollution Control Board, Govt. of India, notification 2009) which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)

$SO_2$ and $NO_2$ have annual average standards; while $O_3$ and CO have eight hour average standards.

(B)

$SO_2$ and CO have annual average standards; while $O_3$ and $NO_2$ have eight hour average standards.

(C)

$SO_2$ and CO have eight hour average standards; while $O_3$ and $NO_2$ have hourly average standards.

(D)

$SO_2$ and $NO_2$ have 24 hour average standards; while $O_3$ and CO have hourly average standards.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Air Quality Management and Dispersion Modelling

Q53

MSQ[2 Marks]

Consider the figure shown below for three different cases (Case P, Case Q, Case R): Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for surface level emissions, given the environmental temperature?

(A)

Case P represents unstable atmosphere and results in higher dispersion of emissions.

(B)

Case Q represents subsidence inversion and results in higher dispersion of emissions than Case P.

(C)

Case Q represents elevated inversion and results in lower dispersion of emissions than Case P.

(D)

Case R represents subsidence inversion and results in lower dispersion of emissions than Case P.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Air and Noise Pollution→Air Quality Management and Dispersion Modelling

Q54

NAT[2 Marks]

A ground level source emits $1000\text{ g per day}$ of $SO_2$. In vicinity of the source, ambient temperature is measured at $10\text{ m}$ and $110\text{ m}$ as $25^\circ\text{C}$ and $24.5^\circ\text{C}$, respectively. The mean wind speed is found to be $2\text{ m per second}$. The dispersion coefficients at $1000\text{ m}$ downwind distance from the source are given in table below... Estimated ground level concentration (in $\mu\text{g/m}^3$, rounded off to two decimal places) of $SO_2$ at a downwind distance of $1000\text{ m}$ (at the plume centerline) from the source is

Explanation

Solid and Hazardous Waste Management

5 Questions

GATE→2022→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Hazardous Waste Management and Soil Contamination

Q55

MCQ[1 Mark]

Leachate generated from a legacy municipal solid waste dumping site has to be collected and managed carefully. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of treatment of leachate from such a site?

(A)

Settling chamber followed by micro-filtration units are required.

(B)

Modular treatment units targeting dissolved organic matter and salts are required.

(C)

Only biological treatment units like ASP with extended aeration are required.

(D)

Only a combination of anaerobic-aerobic treatment units is required.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q56

MSQ[1 Mark]

Biodegradable wastes like vegetable peelings from kitchen are usually processed by composting techniques. Which of the following option(s) regarding the processing of biodegradable wastes is/are correct?

(A)

Vermi-composting is relatively faster than windrow composting, however vermi-composting is not frequently used on large commercial scale.

(B)

The windrow height should be as short as possible as large windrow height may cause compaction due to the self-weight.

(C)

The windrow height should be as large as possible as that will help to ensure appropriate temperature within the windrow.

(D)

Earthworms facilitate the growth of microorganisms and break down complex organic molecules to simpler ones using enzymatic secretions.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Hazardous Waste Management and Soil Contamination

Q57

MSQ[1 Mark]

As per 'Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 of Govt. of India, the import of hazardous and other wastes from any country shall NOT be permitted for which of the following option(s)?

(A)

Recovery, reuse and recycle

(B)

Disposal in abandoned mines

(C)

Safe disposal in engineered landfills

(D)

Utilization, including co-processing

Explanation

GATE→2022→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q58

MSQ[2 Marks]

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules of 2016 (Govt. of India), which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)

Biodegradable wastes should be processed biologically preferably in decentralized facilities at the sources of generation.

(B)

Biodegradable wastes should be processed biologically preferably in centralized facilities away from the sources of generation.

(C)

Used sanitary pads and napkins should be wrapped and disposed into the domestic hazardous waste containers.

(D)

Non-biodegradable components with a heat content more than $1500\text{ kcal/kg}$ should be used for power generation or Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) manufacture.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q59

NAT[2 Marks]

Figure below gives the heat inflow into the furnace of a waste-to-energy plant along with the heat outflows from the furnace. - Inflows: Waste ($Heat$), Air ($300\text{ kcal/h}$) - Outflows: Flue gas ($90,000\text{ kcal/h}$), Ash ($10,000\text{ kcal/h}$), Heat losses ($3\%$ of heat released while burning waste) Assume: (i) total heat loss equal to $3\%$ of heat released while burning waste, (ii) sensible heat of the waste is negligible, (iii) complete burning of the waste is ensured. If the waste feed rate into this plant is $70\text{ kg/h}$, the heat content of the waste (in kcal/kg, rounded off to one decimal place) is

Explanation

Global and Regional Environmental Issues

3 Questions

GATE→2022→Global and Regional Environmental Issues→Global Effects of Air Pollution & Climate Change

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Global warming?

(A)

Water vapour does not contribute to global warming.

(B)

Global warming is likely to increase the productivity of plants due to $CO_2$ fertilization.

(C)

CFCs do not cause global warming, but can cause ozone layer depletion in stratosphere.

(D)

HFCs and HCFCs are good substitutes for the ozone depleting substances as they cause neither global warming nor ozone layer depletion.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Global and Regional Environmental Issues→Ecology, Biodiversity & Population Growth

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

In context of ecosystems, which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?

(A)

The growth of an organism such as a plant may be dependent on a number of different factors such as sunlight, mineral nutrients (nitrates, phosphates, etc.), etc. Liebig's law states that, growth occurs at the rate permitted by the most limiting factor.

(B)

The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its limiting resources. Carrying capacity is the upper limit of an ecosystem up to which it can provide basic needs.

(C)

The Ramsar convention on lakes and backwater systems of International importance is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of lakes and backwater systems. The treaty was signed in 1981 and became effective in 1985.

(D)

A Red Data Book contains lists of species whose continued existence is threatened. Species are classified into different categories of perceived risk.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Global and Regional Environmental Issues→Global Effects of Air Pollution & Climate Change

Q62

MSQ[2 Marks]

Carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle and phosphorus cycle play important role in the ecosystems. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the phosphorus cycle?

(A)

Shortage of phosphorus can be a limiting factor in many ecosystems, however, its excess can stimulate eutrophication.

(B)

Organic phosphates exist in various rock and soil minerals.

(C)

Like carbon cycle, phosphorus also has a gaseous phase and can move into far away ecosystems.

(D)

Human interventions like application of phosphorus fertilizers cause much phosphorus to get into the ocean.

Explanation

Environmental Management and Sustainable Development

3 Questions

GATE→2022→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Law, Policy, and Treaties

Q63

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements correctly defines the concept of 'Extended Producer's Responsibility'?

(A)

The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound disposal of the product after the end of its life

(B)

The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound manufacturing process for the product

(C)

The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound management of the product from manufacturing stage until it is sold in the market

(D)

The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound management of the product until the end of its life

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Management Systems & Impact Assessment

Q64

MSQ[1 Mark]

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Govt. of India has published the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) draft Notification 2020, intended to replace the existing EIA Notification, 2006 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Which of the following is/are the key change(s) from existing regulation?

(A)

Removal of several project/ activities from the purview of public consultation.

(B)

A list of projects has been included under Category B2, expressly exempted from the requirement of an EIA.

(C)

All the project related activities are brought under the purview of necessary public consultation.

(D)

A list of projects has been included under Category B2, bringing them under the requirement of detailed EIA.

Explanation

GATE→2022→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Law, Policy, and Treaties

Q65

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India?

(A)

NGT Act 2010 draws inspiration from the India's constitutional provision of Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment.

(B)

A retired Judge of the Supreme Court, can be the Chairperson of the NGT.

(C)

NGT Act 2017 is based on the India's constitutional provision of Article 361...

(D)

The NGT is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 45 days of filing of the same.

Explanation