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General Aptitude(10)Mathematics Foundation(9)Environmental Chemistry(5)Environmental Microbiology(6)Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics(7)Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management(7)Air and Noise Pollution(8)Solid and Hazardous Waste Management(7)Global and Regional Environmental Issues(1)Environmental Management and Sustainable Development(5)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

If '$\rightarrow$' denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [sick $\rightarrow$ infirm $\rightarrow$ moribund] is analogous to [silly $\rightarrow$ _____ $\rightarrow$ daft]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(A)

frown

(B)

fawn

(C)

vein

(D)

vain

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

The 15 parts of the given figure are to be painted such that no two adjacent parts with shared boundaries (excluding corners) have the same color. The minimum number of colors required is

(A)

4

(B)

3

(C)

5

(D)

6

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

How many 4-digit positive integers divisible by 3 can be formed using only the digits $\{1, 3, 4, 6, 7\}$, such that no digit appears more than once in a number?

(A)

24

(B)

48

(C)

72

(D)

12

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

The sum of the following infinite series is $2 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{27} + \cdots$

(A)

11/3

(B)

9/2

(C)

5/2

(D)

7/2

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

In an election, the share of valid votes received by the four candidates A, B, C, and D is represented by the pie chart shown. The total number of votes cast in the election were $1,15,000$, out of which $5,000$ were invalid. Based on the data provided, the total number of valid votes received by the candidates B and C is

(A)

45,000

(B)

49,500

(C)

51,750

(D)

54,000

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Thousands of years ago, some people began dairy farming. This coincided with a number of mutations in a particular gene that resulted in these people developing the ability to digest dairy milk. Based on the given passage, which of the following can be inferred?

(A)

All human beings can digest dairy milk.

(B)

No human being can digest dairy milk.

(C)

Digestion of dairy milk is essential for human beings.

(D)

In human beings, digestion of dairy milk is a consequence of mutation of gene.

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

The probability of having only three children with two girls and one boy is

(A)

3/8

(B)

1/3

(C)

1/4

(D)

1/2

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

Person 1 and Person 2 invest in three mutual funds A, B, and C. The amounts they invest in each of these mutual funds are given in the table. - Person 1: A = ₹10,000, B = ₹20,000, C = ₹20,000 - Person 2: A = ₹20,000, B = ₹15,000, C = ₹15,000 At the end of one year, the total amount that Person 1 gets is ₹500 more than Person 2. The annual rate of return for the mutual funds B and C is 15% each. What is the annual rate of return for the mutual fund A?

(A)

7.5%

(B)

10%

(C)

15%

(D)

20%

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

Three different views of a dice are shown in the figure below. The piece of paper that can be folded to make this dice is

(A)

Option (A)

(B)

Option (B)

(C)

Option (C)

(D)

Option (D)

Explanation

GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

Visualize two identical right circular cones such that one is inverted over the other and they share a common circular base. If a cutting plane passes through the vertices of the assembled cones, what shape does the outer boundary of the resulting cross-section make?

(A)

A rhombus

(B)

A triangle

(C)

An ellipse

(D)

A hexagon

Explanation

Mathematics Foundation

9 Questions

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Probability and Statistics

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

Ten cards in a pack are numbered as 1, 2, 3, ..., 10. The probability of drawing a card with an even number or a number which is a multiple of 5 from the pack is

(A)

4/10

(B)

6/10

(C)

2/10

(D)

3/10

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Linear Algebra

Q12

MSQ[1 Mark]

The eigenvalues of the matrix $A = \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 3 \\ 3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}$ are

(A)

1

(B)

2

(C)

7

(D)

0

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Linear Algebra

Q13

MSQ[1 Mark]

If $X$ is a vector, and $A$ and $B$ are linear operators; then the correct mathematical relationship(s) is/are

(A)

$(A+B)X = AX + BX$

(B)

$(\lambda A)X = \lambda(AX)$

(C)

$(AB)X = A(BX)$

(D)

$(A+B)X = A^T X + B^T X$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q14

NAT[1 Mark]

$f(x) = x^3 - 4.5x^2 - 12x$ has a local maximum at $x =$ _____ (an integer value) in the range $x = -2$ to $+2$.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q15

NAT[1 Mark]

Consider the equation $\frac{dy}{dx} - x^2 + e^x = 0$; with $y = 1$ at $x = 0$. The value of $y$ at $x = 1$ is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Take $e = 2.7$)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Probability and Statistics

Q16

MCQ[2 Marks]

A population follows normal distribution. Ten samples ($N=10$) are drawn at random with a mean value of $\overline{x}$ and standard deviation of $S$. Following table provides confidence limits $C(t)$ for Student's $t$-distribution two-tailed test with degrees of freedom $D$. Which one of the following expression is correct for testing the null hypothesis $H_0: \mu = 0$ at $10\%$ significance level?

(A)

Option (A)

(B)

Option (B)

(C)

Option (C)

(D)

Option (D)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q17

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which one is the solution $y(x)$ for the following ordinary differential equation and the specified boundary conditions? $\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - 3\frac{dy}{dx} + 2y = 2e^{-x}$; $y(0) = 2$; $\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)_{x=0} = 1$

(A)

$y(x) = \frac{1}{3}e^{-x} - 2e^x - \frac{1}{3}e^{2x}$

(B)

$y(x) = \frac{1}{3}e^x + 2e^x - \frac{1}{3}e^{2x}$

(C)

$y(x) = \frac{1}{3}e^{-x} + 2e^{-x} - \frac{1}{3}e^{2x}$

(D)

$y(x) = \frac{1}{3}e^{-x} + 2e^x - \frac{1}{3}e^{2x}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q18

MSQ[2 Marks]

Consider the function $f(x) = \ln(\sin(x))$. Expand $f(x+h)$ using Taylor's series. In this context, the correct statement(s) is/are

(A)

Second term in the Taylor's series i.e., the term which includes $h$ is: $h \cdot \ln(\sin(x))$

(B)

First term is $\ln(\sin(x))$

(C)

Third term in the Taylor's series i.e., the term which includes $h^2$ is: $\frac{-h^2}{2(\sin(x))^2}$

(D)

Third term in the Taylor's series i.e., the term which includes $h^2$ is: $\frac{2h^2}{(\sin(x))^2}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Mathematics Foundation→Calculus

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

Consider the equation for a curve, $y = f(x) = x^2 + x$. The area enclosed by the curve, the $x$-axis ($y=0$ line); the vertical lines passing through $x = 1$ and $x = 2$ is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

Environmental Chemistry

5 Questions

GATE→2024→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

Hardness in water is NOT caused by

(A)

$Ca^{2+}$

(B)

$Si^{2+}$

(C)

$Mg^{2+}$

(D)

$CO_3^{2-}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Chemistry→Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry

Q21

MCQ[1 Mark]

The maximum coordination number of $Sn^{4+}$ is

(A)

4

(B)

8

(C)

6

(D)

2

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q22

MCQ[2 Marks]

A saturated stock solution is existing at $25^\circ\text{C}$. In one experiment (i) $25\text{ g } Na_2CO_3$ is added to the stock solution. In another experiment (ii) $25\text{ g } Na_2SO_4$ is added to the stock solution. Select the correct statement from the following.

(A)

Addition of (i) increases concentration of $Ca^{2+}$ and addition of (ii) decreases concentration of $Ca^{2+}$

(B)

Addition of (i) decreases concentration of $Ca^{2+}$ and addition of (ii) increases concentration of $Ca^{2+}$

(C)

Addition of (i) and (ii) increase the concentration of $Ca^{2+}$

(D)

Addition of (i) and (ii) decrease the concentration of $Ca^{2+}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q23

NAT[2 Marks]

The pH of a solution containing $0.1\text{ M}$ of acetic acid and $0.05\text{ M}$ of sodium acetate is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). The $pK_a$ value of ionization of acetic acid is $4.76$.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Chemistry→Principles of Water Chemistry

Q24

NAT[2 Marks]

The ionic strength of a solution containing $0.01\text{ M}$ of $CaCl_2$ and $0.001\text{ M}$ of $Na_2SO_4$ is _____ M (rounded off to 3 decimal places).

Explanation

Environmental Microbiology

6 Questions

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Microorganisms

Q25

MCQ[1 Mark]

Rod shaped bacterial cells are called

(A)

Bacilli

(B)

Cocci

(C)

Spirilla

(D)

Diplococci

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Microbiology and Health

Q26

MCQ[1 Mark]

Tuberculosis is predominantly caused by

(A)

Entamoeba histolytica

(B)

Salmonella typhi

(C)

Mycobacterium bovis

(D)

Bacillus cereus

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Microorganisms

Q27

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?

(A)

Atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia by Rhizobium bacteria in nodules attached to roots of legumes under aerobic conditions

(B)

Atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia by Rhizobium bacteria in nodules attached to roots of legumes under anaerobic conditions

(C)

Azotobacter species under aerobic conditions

(D)

Azotobacter species under anaerobic conditions

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Microbial Metabolism

Q28

MSQ[2 Marks]

Enzymes with the class of enzymes are listed in the table. - (a) Lactate dehydrogenase - (b) Alanine racemase - (c) Lipase - (d) Hexokinase Classes: (i) Isomerases, (ii) Transferases, (iii) Oxidoreductases, (iv) Hydrolases Select the correct match(es)

(A)

(a) - (iii); (b) - (i)

(B)

(c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)

(C)

(a) - (ii); (b) - (iv)

(D)

(c) - (iii); (d) - (i)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Growth and Control of Microorganisms

Q29

MSQ[2 Marks]

With reference to disinfection, which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

(A)

Ethanol damages lipid structures in the bacterial cell membrane.

(B)

Mercuric chloride inactivates cellular enzymes containing sulfhydryl groups.

(C)

Glutaraldehyde inactivates protein.

(D)

Isopropyl alcohol cannot be used as a disinfectant.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Microbiology→Cell Chemistry and Cell Biology

Q30

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

(A)

DNA is composed of nucleotides.

(B)

Five types of nitrogenous bases occur in DNA.

(C)

Each phosphate is attached to two deoxyribose units in a single strand of DNA.

(D)

The ratio of adenine to guanine is always 1:1 in a double stranded DNA.

Explanation

Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics

7 Questions

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q31

MSQ[1 Mark]

In the context of fluid flow, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)

Streamline is a line, tangent to which at any point gives the direction of the velocity vector

(B)

Streakline is the actual path traversed by a given fluid particle in an unsteady flow

(C)

Streakline and streamline are same for a steady flow

(D)

Pathline and streamline are same for a steady flow

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q32

MSQ[1 Mark]

In a rectangular open channel, the flow is critical, and the flow depth is $2\text{ m}$. Select the correct statement(s)

(A)

Specific energy for the flow is 3.0 m

(B)

Specific energy for the flow is 2.0 m

(C)

Froude number is 1.0

(D)

Froude number is 1.5

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Surface Water Resources

Q33

NAT[1 Mark]

A Class-A pan was setup adjacent to a lake for measuring evaporation losses in the lake. The depth of water in the pan at the beginning of a certain week was $250\text{ mm}$. In that week, there was a rainfall event with $10\text{ mm}$ depth. Water depth in the pan at the end of the week was $240\text{ mm}$. The pan coefficient is $0.8$. The estimated lake evaporation during the week was _____ mm (an integer value).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Groundwater Resources

Q34

MCQ[2 Marks]

Consider two horizontal layers of an aquifer as shown in figure. Each layer is isotropic and homogeneous. Flow is parallel to the stratification. Thickness and horizontal hydraulic conductivity of layer-1 are $h_1$ and $K_1$, respectively. Thickness and horizontal hydraulic conductivity of layer-2 are $h_2$ and $K_2$, respectively. The equivalent horizontal conductivity $K_x$ for the aquifer system is given by

(A)

$K_x = \frac{K_1 h_1 + K_2 h_2}{h_1 + h_2}$

(B)

$K_x = \frac{K_1 + K_2}{2}$

(C)

$K_x = \frac{K_1 h_2 + K_2 h_1}{h_1 + h_2}$

(D)

$K_x = \sqrt{K_1 K_2}$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q35

MSQ[2 Marks]

Water is flowing FULL through a rectangular tunnel of size $3\text{ m (width)} \times 2\text{ m (height)}$. The average velocity of flow is $1\text{ m/s}$. The frictional head loss is observed to be $1\text{ m per km}$. Consider acceleration due to gravity ($g$) as $10\text{ m/s}^2$. The correct statement(s) is/are

(A)

Hydraulic radius is 0.6 m

(B)

Darcy-Weisbach friction factor is 0.048

(C)

Hydraulic radius is 2 m

(D)

Darcy-Weisbach friction factor is 0.024

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Surface Water Resources

Q36

NAT[2 Marks]

Consider a watershed and isohyets as shown in the figure. The average rainfall in the watershed is _____ mm (an integer value).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics→Environmental Hydraulics

Q37

NAT[2 Marks]

With reference to the gate shown in the figure, the gate will start opening automatically when the water level '$h$' above the hinge is _____ m (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management

7 Questions

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Sewage Treatment, Sludge & Wastewater Management

Q38

MCQ[1 Mark]

Crown corrosion of reinforced cement concrete sewer is caused by

(A)

sulfur oxidizing bacteria

(B)

iron oxidizing bacteria

(C)

denitrifying bacteria

(D)

fermentative bacteria

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water Treatment Methods & Distribution

Q39

MCQ[1 Mark]

The processes of removal of particles in a rapid sand filter with their description is given in the table. - (i) Straining -> P: Removes only particles large enough to get caught in pores - (ii) Sedimentation -> Q: Larger/heavier particles settle on sand grain - (iii) Interception -> R: Particles following streamline but too large caught by brushing against sand - (iv) Diffusion -> S: Very small particles experiencing Brownian motion Select the correct match.

(A)

i-S; ii-P; iii-Q; iv-R

(B)

i-Q; ii-R; iii-S; iv-P

(C)

i-R; ii-S; iii-P; iv-Q

(D)

i-P; ii-Q; iii-R; iv-S

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water Treatment Methods & Distribution

Q40

MSQ[1 Mark]

With respect to particle settling in wastewater treatment systems; the correct statement(s) is/are

(A)

Settling in grit chamber and primary sedimentation tanks are examples of Type-I settling

(B)

Settling in primary sedimentation tank and secondary sedimentation tank are examples of Type-II settling

(C)

Settling in grit chamber is an example of Type-I settling, whereas settling in primary sedimentation tank is an example of Type-II settling

(D)

Settling in secondary sedimentation tank is an example of Type-III settling, whereas settling in primary sedimentation tank is an example of Type-II settling

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Kinetics and Reactor Design

Q41

MCQ[2 Marks]

Consider second order kinetics ($r_c = -kC^2$) under steady state condition. The ratio of volume of a complete mixed reactor (CMR) to that of a plug flow reactor (PFR) to achieve $90\%$ reduction in the concentration is (Inlet concentrations in both the reactors are same).

(A)

10.0

(B)

1.0

(C)

0.1

(D)

2.3

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water and Wastewater Quality Parameters & River Pollution

Q42

MSQ[2 Marks]

The Streeter-Phelp's oxygen sag equation for a river is based on a few assumptions. The correct assumption(s) is/are

(A)

At any instant the deoxygenation rate is directly proportional to the amount of oxidizable organic material present.

(B)

At any instant the deoxygenation rate is inversely proportional to the amount of oxidizable organic material present.

(C)

The reoxygenation rate is directly proportional to the dissolved oxygen deficit.

(D)

The reoxygenation rate and deoxygenation rate are directly proportional to the saturation concentration of dissolved oxygen.

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Sewage Treatment, Sludge & Wastewater Management

Q43

NAT[2 Marks]

One million liters per day (MLD) of wastewater with a soluble BOD of $200\text{ mg/L}$ is treated in an activated sludge process. The BOD of treated wastewater is $20\text{ mg/L}$. The observed yield coefficient of the biological system is $0.35$. The daily biomass generation in the system is _____ kg (an integer value).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management→Water and Wastewater Quality Parameters & River Pollution

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

An industry discharges $2\text{ MLD}$ of wastewater with a temperature of $45^\circ\text{C}$ and a pH of $2$, whereas the neighboring industry produces $3\text{ MLD}$ of wastewater with a temperature of $30^\circ\text{C}$ and pH of $8$. If both the wastewaters are mixed and carried, the resulting pH is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Neglect buffering capacity and temperature effect on pH)

Explanation

Air and Noise Pollution

8 Questions

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Air Quality Management and Dispersion Modelling

Q45

MCQ[1 Mark]

The environmental temperature increases by $6^\circ\text{C/km}$ with height at a particular location. The stability condition of the atmosphere at the location is

(A)

stable

(B)

unstable

(C)

inversion

(D)

neutral

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Particulate Pollutants: Measurement and Control

Q46

MSQ[1 Mark]

The equipment that can be used to control particulate air pollution in an industrial unit is/are

(A)

Electrostatic precipitator

(B)

Cyclone separator

(C)

Gravity settler

(D)

Incinerator

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Atmospheric Processes and Air Quality Parameters

Q47

MSQ[1 Mark]

Which is/are the secondary air pollutant(s)?

(A)

$O_3$

(B)

$HNO_3$

(C)

$CO_2$

(D)

$H_2SO_4$

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Particulate Pollutants: Measurement and Control

Q48

MCQ[2 Marks]

A gravity settling chamber of height '$H$' and length '$L$' is designed to control particulate air pollution. In the chamber, the horizontal velocity of air flow is '$V_h$' and terminal settling velocity of the target particle is '$V_t$'. Which one of the following expressions is the correct concept used to calculate the minimum size of the target particle that will be removed with $100\%$ efficiency?

(A)

\frac{V_t}{L} = \frac{V_h}{H}

(B)

V_h \times V_t = L \times H

(C)

V_h = V_t \times L \times H

(D)

\frac{V_t}{H} = \frac{V_h}{L}

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Atmospheric Processes and Air Quality Parameters

Q49

NAT[2 Marks]

The concentration of Ozone ($O_3$) corresponding to a mixing ratio of $120\text{ ppbv}$ at pressure of $1\text{ atm}$ and temperature of $25^\circ\text{C}$ is _____ $\mu\text{g/m}^3$ (rounded off to 1 decimal place). (Atomic weight of oxygen = $16$, $R = 8.314\text{ J/K-mol}$)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Particulate Pollutants: Measurement and Control

Q50

NAT[2 Marks]

In a cyclone separator of radius $25\text{ cm}$, a particle is travelling with a gas stream at velocity of $18\text{ m/s}$. The ratio of centrifugal force to the gravitational force acting on the particle is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Consider $g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2$)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Noise Pollution

Q51

NAT[2 Marks]

Two sources of noise, adjacent to each other in a room, have sound pressure levels of $30$ and $40\text{ decibel (dB)}$. The combined sound pressure level in the room is _____ dB (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Air and Noise Pollution→Air Quality Management and Dispersion Modelling

Q52

NAT[2 Marks]

An industrial stack emits $100\text{ g/s}$ of $CO$ at an effective height of $H$, where the wind speed is $5\text{ m/s}$. At $3\text{ km}$ distance downwind, the values of dispersion coefficient in $y$-direction and $z$-direction are $50\text{ m}$ and $25\text{ m}$, respectively. The $CO$ concentration at the centerline of the plume at $3\text{ km}$ distance downwind is _____ $\text{mg/m}^3$ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Use Gaussian plume model and $\pi = 3.14$, ground-level centerline formula)

Explanation

Solid and Hazardous Waste Management

7 Questions

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Biomedical, Plastic, C&D, E-Waste & Energy Sector Waste

Q53

MCQ[1 Mark]

As per the United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) guidelines 2004, the maximum size of microplastics is

(A)

10 mm

(B)

5 mm

(C)

10 µm

(D)

5 µm

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q54

MCQ[1 Mark]

The costliest functional element in an urban centralized Municipal Solid Waste management infrastructure for a typical Indian Tier I city is

(A)

biological treatment

(B)

collection and transport

(C)

disposal in a sanitary landfill

(D)

thermal treatment

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Hazardous Waste Management and Soil Contamination

Q55

MSQ[1 Mark]

As per the Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, which is/are the characteristic(s) that must be exhibited by a waste to be classified as a "characteristic" hazardous waste?

(A)

Ignitability

(B)

Reactivity

(C)

Radioactivity

(D)

Toxicity

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q56

NAT[1 Mark]

A municipal solid waste digester generates $1000\text{ kg}$ of methane gas. The volume of the tank needed to store this gas at $30^\circ\text{C}$ and $3\text{ atm}$ pressure is _____ liters (an integer value). ($R = 0.082\text{ L-atm/mol-K}$, $C=12$, $H=1$)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q57

NAT[2 Marks]

Two hypothetical organic waste streams A and B are mixed prior to composting process. Waste-A has $2.16\%$ of C and $1.20\%$ of N. Waste-B has $19.10\%$ of C and $0.14\%$ of N. The quantity of Waste-B that should be mixed with per kg of Waste-A to achieve the desired C:N ratio of 25 is _____ kg (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q58

NAT[2 Marks]

Food waste, paper waste and plastic waste have typical densities of $280\text{ kg/m}^3$, $80\text{ kg/m}^3$, and $50\text{ kg/m}^3$, respectively. The mixed waste is composed of $70\%$ food waste, $20\%$ paper waste and $10\%$ plastic waste. The density of the mixed waste is _____ $\text{kg/m}^3$ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Solid and Hazardous Waste Management→Integrated Solid Waste Management & Municipal Waste

Q59

NAT[2 Marks]

For a biodegradable waste with a chemical formula $C_{50}H_{100}O_{40}N$, the maximum theoretical methane production per ton of waste is _____ kg (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Assume $100\%$ anaerobic conversion; Atomic weights: $C=12, H=1, O=16, N=14$)

Explanation

Global and Regional Environmental Issues

1 Question

GATE→2024→Global and Regional Environmental Issues→Global Effects of Air Pollution & Climate Change

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

(A)

$CO_2$

(B)

$CH_4$

(C)

$H_2S$

(D)

$H_2O$

Explanation

Environmental Management and Sustainable Development

5 Questions

GATE→2024→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Sustainable Development and Economics

Q61

MCQ[1 Mark]

As per the United Nations agenda for sustainable development adopted in September 2015, the number of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are _____ and the proposed target year to achieve them is _____

(A)

15; 2035

(B)

17; 2030

(C)

20; 2040

(D)

17; 2050

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Management Systems & Impact Assessment

Q62

MSQ[2 Marks]

Based on the ISO 14040 methodology for Life Cycle Assessment, match the terms with the descriptions in the table: - (a) Goal and Scope -> (ii) The problem is described, and the objective of the study are defined - (b) Functional Unit -> (i) Based on the product or system, the comparative unit must be carefully defined and be same for all scenarios - (c) Life Cycle Inventory -> (iv) Process based approach and input-output approach - (d) Impact Assessment -> (iii) Evaluates the environmental implications due to the inventorized emissions The correct match(es) is/are

(A)

a-(ii); b-(i)

(B)

a-(iii); b-(i)

(C)

c-(iii); d-(iv)

(D)

a-(i); d-(iii)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Management Systems & Impact Assessment

Q63

NAT[2 Marks]

A person consumes $2.5\text{ liters}$ of water per day. The water quality test indicated that the supplied water has a Pb concentration of $0.6\text{ mg/L}$. If the weight of the person is $75\text{ kg}$, the exposure level for Pb for this person from this drinking water source is _____ mg/kg/day (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Energy and Environment

Q64

NAT[2 Marks]

In a region, total annual consumption of gasoline is $30.6\text{ million tons}$. The land required for growing sugarcane to produce enough bioethanol to replace the gasoline completely is _____ $\text{km}^2$ (an integer value). (Ethanol energy equivalent is $67\%$ of gasoline, gasoline density is $850\text{ kg/m}^3$, yield of bioethanol from sugarcane is $3750\text{ L/hectare}$, $1\text{ km}^2 = 100\text{ hectares}$)

Explanation

GATE→2024→Environmental Management and Sustainable Development→Environmental Management Systems & Impact Assessment

Q65

NAT[2 Marks]

Initially a bottle contained $400\text{ g}$ of ethanol. Half of ethanol was used by a student for preparing the stock solution in an environmental chemistry laboratory just before summer vacation of $90\text{ days}$. After completing the procedure, the student left the bottle uncorked. If the unsealed bottle loses ethanol at a rate of $0.5\text{ g/day}$, the ethanol that will be left in the bottle at the end of the summer vacation is _____ g (an integer value).

Explanation