If '→' denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [smile → giggle → laugh] is analogous to [disapprove → chide → ___]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q2
MCQ[1 Mark]
Find the odd one out in the set: {19, 37, 21, 17, 23, 29, 31, 11}
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q3
MCQ[1 Mark]
In the following series, identify the number that needs to be changed to form the Fibonacci series.
1, 1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 13, 21, ...
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q4
MCQ[1 Mark]
The real variables x,y,z, and the real constants p,q,r satisfy
pq−r2x=qr−p2y=rp−q2z\nGiven that the denominators are non-zero, the value of px+qy+rz is
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q5
MCQ[1 Mark]
Take two long dice (rectangular parallelepiped), each having four rectangular faces labelled as 2, 3, 5, and 7. If thrown, the long dice cannot land on the square faces and has 1/4 probability of landing on any of the four rectangular faces. The label on the top face of the dice is the score of the throw. If thrown together, what is the probability of getting the sum of the two long dice scores greater than 11?
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability
Q6
MCQ[2 Marks]
In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)-(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks.
\nProf. P **(i)** merely a man who narrated funny stories. **(ii)** in his blackest moments was he able to find humor. Prof. Q **(iii)** a man who hardly narrated funny stories. **(iv)** in his blackest moments he was capable of self-deprecating humor.
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q7
MCQ[2 Marks]
Sets A, B, C ... [Note: Official Key marked this as MTA (Marks To All)]
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation
Q8
MCQ[2 Marks]
The bar chart gives the batting averages of VK and RS for 11 calendar years from 2012 to 2022. Considering that 2015 and 2019 are world cup years, which one of the following options is true?
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q9
MCQ[2 Marks]
A planar rectangular paper has two V-shaped pieces attached as shown below. This piece of paper is folded to make the following closed three-dimensional object. The number of folds required to form the above object is
GATE→2024→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q10
MCQ[2 Marks]
Four equilateral triangles are used to form a regular closed three-dimensional object by joining along the edges. The angle between any two faces is
[Note: Official Key marked this as MTA (Marks To All)]
In order to numerically solve the ordinary differential equation dtdy=−y for t>0, with an initial condition y(0)=1, the following scheme is employed:
Δtyn+1−yn=−21(yn+1+yn)\nHere, Δt is the time step and yn=y(nΔt) for n=0,1,2,... This numerical scheme will yield a solution with non-physical oscillations for Δt>h. The value of h is
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus
Q12
MCQ[1 Mark]
The value of the surface integral
∮Szdxdy\nwhere S is the external surface of the sphere x2+y2+z2=R2 is
Let f(z) be an analytic function, where z=x+iy. If the real part of f(z) is coshxcosy, and the imaginary part of f(z) is zero for y=0 then f(z) is
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra
Q14
MCQ[1 Mark]
Consider the system of linear equations
x+2y+z=52x+ay+4z=122x+4y+6z=b\nThe values of a and b such that there exists a non-trivial null space and the system admits infinite solutions are
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus
Q15
MCQ[1 Mark]
Let f(.) be a twice differentiable function from R2→R. If p,x0∈R2 where ∣∣p∣∣ is sufficiently small, then
f(x0+p)=f(x0)+∇f(x0)Tp+21pT∇2f(ψ)p\nwhere ψ∈R2 is a point on the line segment joining x0 and x0+p. If x0 is a strict local minimum of f(x), then which one of the following statements is TRUE?
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra
Q16
MCQ[2 Marks]
The matrix
[18a3]
(where a>0) has a negative eigenvalue if a is greater than
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus
Q17
NAT[2 Marks]
If the value of the double integral
∫x=34∫y=12(x+y)2dydx\nis loge(a/24), then a is ____ (answer in integer).
If x(t) satisfies the differential equation
tdtdx+(t−x)=0\nsubject to the condition x(1)=0 then the value of x(2) is ____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics
Q19
NAT[2 Marks]
Let X be a continuous random variable defined on [0,1] such that its probability density function f(x)=1 for 0≤x≤1 and 0 otherwise. Let Y=loge(X+1). Then the expected value of Y is ____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Applied Mechanics and Design
15 Questions
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Machine Design
Q20
MCQ[1 Mark]
For a ball bearing, the fatigue life in millions of revolutions is given by
L=(PC)n\nwhere P is the constant applied load and C is the basic dynamic load rating. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Theory of Machines
Q21
MCQ[1 Mark]
The change in kinetic energy ΔE of an engine is 300J, and minimum and maximum shaft speeds are ωmin=220rad/s and ωmax=280rad/s, respectively. Assume that the torque-time function is purely harmonic. To achieve a coefficient of fluctuation of 0.05, the moment of inertia (in kg⋅m2) of the flywheel to be mounted on the engine shaft is
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Engineering Mechanics
Q22
MCQ[1 Mark]
A ram in the form of a rectangular body of size l=9m and b=2m is suspended by two parallel ropes of lengths 7m. Assume the center-of-mass of the body is at its geometric center and g=9.81m/s2. For striking the object P with a horizontal velocity of 5m/s, what is the angle θ with the vertical from which the ram should be released from rest?
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Vibrations
Q23
MCQ[1 Mark]
A linear spring-mass-dashpot system with a mass of 2kg is set in motion with viscous damping. If the natural frequency is 15Hz, and the amplitudes of two successive cycles measured are 7.75mm and 7.20mm, the coefficient of viscous damping (in N⋅s/m) is
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Machine Design
Q24
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following failure theories is the most conservative design approach against fatigue failure?
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Engineering Mechanics
Q25
MCQ[1 Mark]
A rigid massless tetrahedron is placed such that vertex O is at the origin and the other three vertices A, B, and C lie on the coordinate axes as shown in the figure. The body is acted on by three point loads, of which one is acting at A along x-axis and another at point B along y-axis. For the body to be in equilibrium, the third point load acting at point O must be
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Engineering Mechanics
Q26
MSQ[2 Marks]
Which of the following beam(s) is/are statically indeterminate?
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Theory of Machines
Q27
NAT[2 Marks]
The Levai type-A train illustrated in the figure has gears with module m=8mm/tooth. Gears 2 and 3 have 19 and 24 teeth respectively. Gear 2 is fixed and internal gear 4 rotates at 20rev/min counter-clockwise. The magnitude of angular velocity of the arm is ____ rev/min. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Engineering Mechanics
Q28
NAT[2 Marks]
A horizontal beam of length 1200mm is pinned at the left end and is resting on a roller at the other end as shown in the figure. A linearly varying distributed load is applied on the beam. The magnitude of maximum bending moment acting on the beam is ____ N \cdot m (round off to 1 decimal place).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Theory of Machines
Q29
NAT[2 Marks]
At the instant when OP is vertical and AP is horizontal, the link OD is rotating counter clockwise at a constant rate ω=7rad/s. Pin P on link OD slides in the slot BC of link ABC which is hinged at A, and causes a clockwise rotation of the link ABC. The magnitude of angular velocity of link ABC for this instant is ____ rad/s (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Vibrations
Q30
NAT[2 Marks]
A vibratory system consists of mass m, a vertical spring of stiffness 2k and a horizontal spring of stiffness k. The end A of the horizontal spring is given a horizontal motion xA=asinωt. The other end of the spring is connected to an inextensible rope that passes over two massless pulleys as shown. Assume m=10kg, k=1.5kN/m and neglect friction. The magnitude of critical driving frequency for which the oscillations of mass m tend to become excessively large is ____ rad/s (answer in integer).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Machine Design
Q31
NAT[2 Marks]
A solid massless cylindrical member of 50mm diameter is rigidly attached at one end, and is subjected to an axial force P=100KN and a torque T=600N⋅m at the other end as shown. Assume that the axis of the cylinder is normal to the support. Considering distortion energy theory with allowable yield stress as 300MPa, the factor of safety in the design is ____ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Machine Design
Q32
NAT[2 Marks]
The figure shows a thin cylindrical pressure vessel constructed by welding plates together along a line that makes an angle α=60∘ with the horizontal. The closed vessel has a wall thickness of 10mm and diameter of 2m. When subjected to an internal pressure of 200kPa, the magnitude of the normal stress acting on the weld is ____ MPa (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Engineering Mechanics
Q33
NAT[2 Marks]
A three-hinge arch ABC in the form of a semi-circle is shown in the figure. The arch is in static equilibrium under vertical loads P=100kN and Q=50kN. Neglect friction at all the hinges. The magnitude of the horizontal reaction at B is ____ kN (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
GATE→2024→Applied Mechanics and Design→Machine Design
Q34
NAT[2 Marks]
A band brake shown in the figure has a coefficient of friction of 0.3. The band can take a maximum force of 1.5kN. The maximum braking force (F) that can be safely applied is ____ N (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences
15 Questions
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Fluid Mechanics
Q35
MCQ[1 Mark]
The velocity field of a two-dimensional, incompressible flow is given by
V=2sinhxi^+v(x,y)j^\nwhere i^ and j^ denote the unit vectors in x and y directions, respectively. If v(x,0)=coshx, then v(0,−1) is
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q36
MCQ[1 Mark]
A plane, solid slab of thickness L, shown in the figure, has thermal conductivity k that varies with the spatial coordinate x as k=A+Bx, where A and B are positive constants (A>0,B>0). The slab walls are maintained at fixed temperatures of T(x=0)=0 and T(x=L)=T0>0. The slab has no internal heat sources. Considering one-dimensional heat transfer, which one of the following plots qualitatively depicts the steady-state temperature distribution within the slab?
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q37
MCQ[1 Mark]
Consider incompressible laminar flow over a flat plate with freestream velocity of u∞. The Nusselt number corresponding to this flow velocity is Nu1. If the freestream velocity is doubled, the Nusselt number changes to Nu2. Choose the correct option for Nu2/Nu1.
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q38
MCQ[1 Mark]
Consider a hydrodynamically fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with the flow along the axis (i.e., z direction). In the following statements, T is the temperature of the fluid, Tw is the wall temperature and Tm is the bulk mean temperature of the fluid. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
[Note: Official Key marked this as MTA (Marks To All)]
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Thermodynamics
Q39
MCQ[1 Mark]
A furnace can supply heat steadily at 1200K at a rate of 24000kJ/min. The maximum amount of power (in kW) that can be produced by using the heat supplied by this furnace in an environment at 300K is
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Thermodynamics
Q40
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following statements regarding a Rankine cycle is FALSE?
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Fluid Mechanics
Q41
MCQ[2 Marks]
In the pipe network shown in the figure, all pipes have the same cross-section and can be assumed to have the same friction factor. The pipes connecting points W, N, and S with point J have an equal length L. The pipe connecting points J and E has a length 10L. The pressures at the ends N, E, and S are equal. The flow rate in the pipe connecting W and J is Q. Assume that the fluid flow is steady, incompressible, and the pressure losses at the pipe entrance and junction are negligible. Consider the following statements:\nI: The flow rate in pipe connecting J and E is Q/21.\nII: The pressure difference between J and N is equal to the pressure difference between J and E.\nWhich one of the following options is CORRECT?
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Fluid Mechanics
Q42
MSQ[2 Marks]
Steady, compressible flow of air takes place through an adiabatic converging-diverging nozzle, as shown in the figure. For a particular value of pressure difference across the nozzle, a stationary normal shock wave forms in the diverging section of the nozzle. If E and F denote the flow conditions just upstream and downstream of the normal shock, respectively, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
Consider an air-standard Brayton cycle with adiabatic compressor and turbine, and a regenerator, as shown in the figure. Air enters the compressor at 100kPa and 300K and exits the compressor at 600kPa and 550K. The air exits the combustion chamber at 1250K and exits the adiabatic turbine at 100kPa and 800K. The exhaust air from the turbine is used to preheat the air in the regenerator. The exhaust air exits the regenerator (state 6) at 600K. There is no pressure drop across the regenerator and the combustion chamber. Also, there is no heat loss from the regenerator to the surroundings. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is cp/cv=1.4. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is ____ % (answer in integer).
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Thermodynamics
Q44
NAT[2 Marks]
A piston-cylinder arrangement shown in the figure has a stop located 2m above the base. The cylinder initially contains air at 140kPa and 350∘C and the piston is resting in equilibrium at a position which is 1m above the stops (3m total height). The system is now cooled to the ambient temperature of 25∘C. Consider air to be an ideal gas with a value of gas constant R=0.287kJ/(kg⋅K).\nThe absolute value of specific work done during the process is ____ kJ/kg (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Thermodynamics
Q45
NAT[2 Marks]
A heat pump (H.P.) is driven by the work output of a heat engine (H.E.) as shown in the figure. The heat engine extracts 150kJ of heat from the source at 1000K. The heat pump absorbs heat from the ambient at 280K and delivers heat to the room which is maintained at 300K. Considering the combined system to be ideal, the total amount of heat delivered to the room together by the heat engine and heat pump is ____ kJ (answer in integer).
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q46
NAT[2 Marks]
Consider a slab of 20mm thickness. There is a uniform heat generation of q˙=100MW/m3 inside the slab. The left and right faces of the slab are maintained at 150∘C and 110∘C, respectively. The plate has a constant thermal conductivity of 200W/(m⋅K). Considering a 1-D steady state heat conduction, the location of the maximum temperature from the left face will be at ____ mm (answer in integer).
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q47
NAT[2 Marks]
A condenser is used as a heat exchanger in a large steam power plant in which steam is condensed to liquid water. The condenser is a shell and tube heat exchanger which consists of 1 shell and 20,000 tubes. Water flows through each of the tubes at a rate of 1kg/s with an inlet temperature of 30∘C. The steam in the condenser shell condenses at the rate of 430kg/s at a temperature of 50∘C. If the heat of vaporization is 2.326MJ/kg and specific heat of water is 4kJ/(kg⋅K), the effectiveness of the heat exchanger is ____ (rounded off to 3 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Heat Transfer
Q48
NAT[2 Marks]
Consider a hemispherical furnace of diameter D=6m with a flat base. The dome of the furnace has an emissivity of 0.7 and the flat base is a blackbody. The base and the dome are maintained at uniform temperature of 300K and 1200K, respectively. Under steady state conditions, the rate of radiation heat transfer from the dome to the base is ____ kW (rounded off to 1 decimal place).\nUse Stefan-Boltzmann constant =5.67×10−8W/(m2K4)
GATE→2024→Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences→Fluid Mechanics
Q49
NAT[2 Marks]
A liquid fills a horizontal capillary tube whose one end is dipped in a large pool of the liquid. Experiments show that the distance L travelled by the liquid meniscus in time t is given by
L=kγaRbμct\nwhere γ is the surface tension, R is the inner radius of the capillary, and μ is the dynamic viscosity of the liquid. If k is a dimensionless constant, then the value of a is ____ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering
16 Questions
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Engineering Materials
Q50
MCQ[1 Mark]
The phases present in pearlite are
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q51
MCQ[1 Mark]
The 'Earing' phenomenon in metal forming is associated with
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Machining and Machine Tool Operations
Q52
MCQ[1 Mark]
The grinding wheel used to provide the best surface finish is
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q53
MCQ[1 Mark]
The allowance provided to a pattern for easy withdrawal from a sand mold is
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q54
MCQ[1 Mark]
The most suitable electrode material used for joining low alloy steels using Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) process is
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Computer Aided Manufacturing and Automation
Q55
MCQ[1 Mark]
The preparatory functions in Computer Numerical Controlled (CNC) machine programming are denoted by the alphabet
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Production Planning and Control
Q56
MCQ[1 Mark]
A set of jobs U, V, W, X, Y, Z arrive at time t=0 to a production line consisting of two workstations in series. Each job must be processed by both workstations in sequence (i.e., the first followed by the second). The process times (in minutes) for each job on each workstation in the production line are given below.
| Job | U | V | W | X | Y | Z |
| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |
| Workstation 1 | 5 | 7 | 3 | 4 | 6 | 8 |
| Workstation 2 | 4 | 6 | 6 | 8 | 5 | 7 |
\nThe sequence in which the jobs must be processed by the production line if the total makespan of production is to be minimized is
[Note: Official Key marked this as MTA (Marks To All)]
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Operations Research
Q57
MCQ[1 Mark]
A queueing system has one single server workstation that admits an infinitely long queue. The rate of arrival of jobs to the queueing system follows the Poisson distribution with a mean of 5 jobs/hour. The service time of the server is exponentially distributed with a mean of 6 minutes. In steady state operation of the queueing system, the probability that the server is not busy at any point in time is
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Production Planning and Control
Q58
MCQ[2 Marks]
A company orders gears in conditions identical to those considered in the economic order quantity (EOQ) model in inventory control. The annual demand is 8000 gears, the cost per order is 300 rupees, and the holding cost is 12 rupees per month per gear. The company uses an order size that is 25% more than the optimal order quantity determined by the EOQ model. The percentage change in the total cost of ordering and holding inventory from that associated with the optimal order quantity is
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Operations Research
Q59
MCQ[2 Marks]
At the current basic feasible solution (bfs) v0, the simplex method yields the following form of a linear programming problem in standard form.
z=−x1−2x2x3=2+2x1−x2x4=7+x1−2x2x5=3−x1x1,x2,x3,x4,x5≥0\nis written as a function of the non-basic variables. If the simplex method moves to the adjacent bfs v1 that best improves the objective function, which of the following represents the objective function at v1, assuming that the objective function is written in the same manner as above?
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Machining and Machine Tool Operations
Q60
NAT[2 Marks]
A cutting tool provides a tool life of 60minutes while machining with the cutting speed of 60m/min. When the same tool is used for machining the same material, it provides a tool life of 10minutes for a cutting speed of 100m/min. If the cutting speed is changed to 80m/min for the same tool and work material combination, the tool life computed using Taylor's tool life model is ____ minutes (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q61
NAT[2 Marks]
Aluminium is casted in a cube-shaped mold having dimensions as 20mm×20mm×20mm. Another mold of the same mold material is used to cast a sphere of aluminium having a diameter of 20mm. The pouring temperature for both cases is the same. The ratio of the solidification times of the cube-shaped mold to the spherical mold is ____ (answer in integer).
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q62
NAT[2 Marks]
A blanking operation is performed on C20 steel sheet to obtain a circular disc having a diameter of 20mm and a thickness of 2mm. An allowance of 0.04 is provided. The punch size used for the operation is ____ mm (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Casting, Forming and Joining Processes
Q63
NAT[2 Marks]
In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 30V and 200A, respectively. The cross-sectional area of the joint is 20mm2 and the welding speed is 5mm/s. The heat required to melt the material is 200J/s. The percentage of heat lost to the surrounding during the welding process is ____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
[Note: Official Key marked this as MTA (Marks To All)]
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Machining and Machine Tool Operations
Q64
NAT[2 Marks]
A flat surface of a C60 steel having dimensions of 100mm (length) ×200mm (width) is produced by a HSS slab mill cutter. The 8-toothed cutter has 100mm diameter and 200mm width. The feed per tooth is 0.1mm, cutting velocity is 20m/min and depth of cut is 2mm. The machining time required to remove the entire stock is ____ minutes (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
GATE→2024→Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering→Operations Research
Q65
NAT[2 Marks]
In a supplier-retailer supply chain, the demand of each retailer, the capacity of each supplier, and the unit cost in rupees of material supply from each supplier to each retailer are tabulated below. The supply chain manager wishes to minimize the total cost of transportation across the supply chain.
| | Retailer I | Retailer II | Retailer III | Retailer IV | Capacity |
| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |
| Supplier A | 11 | 16 | 19 | 13 | 300 |
| Supplier B | 5 | 10 | 7 | 8 | 300 |
| Supplier C | 12 | 14 | 17 | 11 | 300 |
| Supplier D | 8 | 15 | 11 | 9 | 300 |
| Demand | 300 | 300 | 300 | 300 | |
\nThe optimal cost of satisfying the total demand from all retailers is ____ rupees (answer in integer).