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Type:ALLMCQNATMSQ

Engineering Mathematics(9)Metallurgical Thermodynamics(9)Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes(6)Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy(9)Physical Metallurgy(7)Mechanical Behaviour of Materials(5)Manufacturing Processes(8)Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials(2)General Aptitude(10)

Engineering Mathematics

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

Order (O) and degree (D) of the differential equation $\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{3} = \sqrt{\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}} + 10}$ are (A) $O=2$ and $D=1$ (B) $O=1$ and $D=2$ (C) $O=6$ and $D=1$ (D) $O=2$ and $D=6$

(A)

O=2 and D=1

(B)

O=1 and D=2

(C)

O=6 and D=1

(D)

O=2 and D=6

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

The value of $\lim_{x\rightarrow 1} \frac{7x^{7} - 20x^{5} + 13x}{3x^{3} + x - 4}$ is (A) $-\frac{38}{10}$ (B) $-\frac{51}{10}$ (C) $\frac{38}{10}$ (D) undefined

(A)

-\frac{38}{10}

(B)

-\frac{51}{10}

(C)

\frac{38}{10}

(D)

undefined

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q3

NAT[1 Mark]

The sum of eigenvalues of the matrix $$\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 3 & 2 \\ 0 & -1 & 2 \\ 0 & 0 & -3 \end{bmatrix}$$\nis ___ (in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics

Q4

NAT[1 Mark]

The probability of setting an easy exam paper by three setters are $\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{3}$, and $\frac{1}{4}$. If all three are setting one paper each, then the probability that at least one of the papers will be easy is ___ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q5

NAT[1 Mark]

The maximum value of function $f(x) = 4x^3 - 24x^2 + 36$ in the domain $[-1, 5]$ is ___ (round off to nearest integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Vector Calculus

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

A fluid flow field is given by the velocity vector $\vec{V} = e^{xyz}(x\hat{i} + z\hat{k})$. The curl of velocity at $(1, 2, 3)$ is (A) $e^{6}(9\hat{i} - 16\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})$ (B) $e^{6}(9\hat{i} - 3\hat{k})$ (C) $e^{6}(9\hat{i} + 16\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})$ (D) $e^{6}(-16\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})$

(A)

e^{6}(9\hat{i}-16\hat{j}-3\hat{k})

(B)

e^{6}(9\hat{i}-3\hat{k})

(C)

e^{6}(9\hat{i}+16\hat{j}-3\hat{k})

(D)

e^{6}(-16\hat{i}+9\hat{j}-3\hat{k})

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Vector Calculus

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

Given, $\vec{\varphi} = xy\hat{i} + yz\hat{j} + xz\hat{k}$. $S$ is a surface bounded by the planes $x=0$, $y=0$, $z=0$, $x=3$, $y=2$, and $z=1$. If $\hat{n}$ is the unit normal to $S$, then $\iint \vec{\varphi}\cdot\hat{n}\text{ }ds$ is (A) 18 (B) 9 (C) 36 (D) 3

(A)

18

(B)

9

(C)

36

(D)

3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the plots in Section I with the corresponding functions in Section II.\nFunctions: (1) $y = \frac{\sin^2 x}{x}$, (2) $y = \frac{\sin x}{x}$, (3) $y = x \sin^2 x$, (4) $y = x \sin x$.

(A)

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B)

P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C)

P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D)

P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra

Q9

NAT[2 Marks]

For the equation $$\begin{vmatrix} x+3 & 3x+4 & 4x+5 \\ -2 & -3 & -4 \\ -3 & -4 & -5 \end{vmatrix} = 0$$\nthe value of $x$ is ___ (in integer).

Explanation

Metallurgical Thermodynamics

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q10

MCQ[1 Mark]

At one atmosphere pressure, $\alpha$-Fe transforms to $\gamma$-Fe above $912^{\circ}\text{C}$. Density of $\gamma$-Fe is more than that of $\alpha$-Fe. Choose the correct statement. (A) Increasing the pressure above one atmosphere lowers the $\alpha$-Fe to $\gamma$-Fe transformation temperature. (B) Increasing the pressure above one atmosphere raises the $\alpha$-Fe to $\gamma$-Fe transformation temperature. (C) Molar volume of $\gamma$-Fe is higher than the molar volume of $\alpha$-Fe. (D) Pressure change will not have any effect on the $\alpha$-Fe to $\gamma$-Fe transformation temperature.

(A)

Increasing the pressure above one atmosphere lowers the \alpha-Fe to \gamma-Fe transformation temperature.

(B)

Increasing the pressure above one atmosphere raises the \alpha-Fe to \gamma-Fe transformation temperature.

(C)

Molar volume of \gamma-Fe is higher than the molar volume of \alpha-Fe.

(D)

Pressure change will not have any effect on the \alpha-Fe to \gamma-Fe transformation temperature.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

Formation of an ideal solution leads to (A) increase in entropy (B) decrease in volume (C) increase in enthalpy (D) decrease in entropy

(A)

increase in entropy

(B)

decrease in volume

(C)

increase in enthalpy

(D)

decrease in entropy

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

At one atmosphere pressure, iron (Fe) and nickel (Ni) oxidize as: $2Fe + O_{2} \leftrightarrow 2FeO$, $\Delta G^{\circ} = -527400 + 128T\text{ Joules}$ $2Ni + O_{2} \leftrightarrow 2NiO$, $\Delta G^{\circ} = -471200 + 172T\text{ Joules}$\nIdentify the correct statement. Given: Temperature $T$ is in Kelvin. (A) Fe can reduce NiO at all temperatures (B) Fe can reduce NiO only above 1000 K (C) Ni can reduce FeO at all temperatures (D) Ni can reduce FeO only above 1000 K

(A)

Fe can reduce NiO at all temperatures

(B)

Fe can reduce NiO only above 1000 K

(C)

Ni can reduce FeO at all temperatures

(D)

Ni can reduce FeO only above 1000 K

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q13

NAT[1 Mark]

Maximum number of phases that can be in equilibrium for a 5-component system at constant temperature and pressure is ___ (in integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q14

MCQ[2 Marks]

Taking $S$ as entropy, $T$ as temperature, $P$ as pressure, and $V$ as volume, match Column I with Column II.\nColumn I: (A) Gibbs Free Energy (B) Helmholtz Free Energy (C) Enthalpy (D) Internal Energy\nColumn II: (1) depends on $T, V$ and composition (2) depends on $T, P$ and composition (3) depends on $S, P$ and composition (4) depends on $S, V$ and composition (A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (C) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(A)

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

(B)

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(C)

A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(D)

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q15

MSQ[2 Marks]

Concerning the chemical potentials of components in a binary system at constant pressure, the correct statement(s) is/are (A) For single-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potentials of the components change with alloy composition. (B) For two-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potential of any component in both phases is same. (C) For two-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potentials of the components change with alloy composition. (D) For single-phase equilibrium of a given composition, chemical potentials of the components do not change with temperature.

(A)

For single-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potentials of the components change with alloy composition.

(B)

For two-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potential of any component in both phases is same.

(C)

For two-phase equilibrium at a given temperature, chemical potentials of the components change with alloy composition.

(D)

For single-phase equilibrium of a given composition, chemical potentials of the components do not change with temperature.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q16

NAT[2 Marks]

Enthalpy of formation of an A-B regular solution containing $80\text{ atomic percent A}$ is $3.36\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$. The activity coefficient of A at $500\text{ K}$ for the solution containing $40\text{ atomic percent A}$ is ___ (round off to 1 decimal place).\nGiven: Universal gas constant, $R = 8.314\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions

Q17

NAT[2 Marks]

The alloy A (given in the phase diagram) is cooled slowly from the liquid state to just below the eutectic temperature. The ratio of weight fractions of pro-eutectic $\alpha$ to eutectic $\alpha$ is ___ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Electrochemistry

Q18

NAT[2 Marks]

In an aqueous solution of $Fe^{2+}$ ions with concentration of $10^{-4}\text{ M}$ at $298\text{ K}$ and atmospheric pressure, the reduction potential of Fe in volt is ___ (round off to 2 decimal places).\nGiven: Standard reduction potential, $E^{\circ}_{Fe^{2+}/Fe} = -0.44\text{ V}$, Faraday's constant $F = 96500\text{ C mol}^{-1}$, Universal gas constant $R = 8.314\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$

Explanation

Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes

6 Questions

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer

Q19

MCQ[1 Mark]

For laminar fluid flow through a smooth circular tube, the relation between friction factor ($f$) and Reynolds number ($Re$) is (A) $f = \frac{16}{Re}$ (B) $f = \frac{24}{Re}$ (C) $f = \frac{16}{\sqrt{Re}}$ (D) $f = \frac{24}{\sqrt{Re}}$

(A)

f=\frac{16}{Re}

(B)

f=\frac{24}{Re}

(C)

f=\frac{16}{\sqrt{Re}}

(D)

f=\frac{24}{\sqrt{Re}}

Explanation

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer

Q20

NAT[1 Mark]

A liquid of density $900\text{ kg m}^{-3}$ is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of $0.1\text{ m s}^{-1}$. The laminar boundary layer thickness at a distance of $0.2\text{ m}$ from the leading edge of the plate is $0.007\text{ m}$. The viscosity of the liquid in centipoise is ___ (round off to 2 decimal places). (Given: $1\text{ centipoise} = 10^{-3}\text{ kg m}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Basic Laws of Chemical Kinetics

Q21

NAT[1 Mark]

The rate constant of a reaction at $400\text{ K}$ is three times the value at $300\text{ K}$. The activation energy of the reaction in $\text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ is ___ (round off to 1 decimal place). Given: Universal gas constant, $R = 8.314\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Mass Transfer and Dimensional Analysis

Q22

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the transport processes in Column I with the relationships in Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Molecular momentum transport (Q) Molecular mass transport (R) Molecular energy transport (S) Radiation energy transport\nColumn II: (1) Stefan-Boltzmann law (2) Newton's law of viscosity (3) Fick's law (4) Fourier law (A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(A)

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C)

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D)

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer

Q23

NAT[2 Marks]

A chimney as shown in the figure requires to have natural draft (pressure difference between the furnace and the bottom of chimney, $P_{0}-P_{1}$) of $1.0133\times 10^{3}\text{ Pa}$. If the density difference between the air and flue is $0.5\text{ kg m}^{-3}$, the minimum height ($h$) of the chimney in meters is ___ (round off to nearest integer). (Given: acceleration due to gravity, $g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}$)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Heat Transfer

Q24

NAT[2 Marks]

Two circular surfaces A and B with the values of emissivity $\varepsilon$, temperature $T$, and respective view factors are shown in the figure. Surface A: radius $1\text{ m}$ (area $A_1 = \pi\text{ m}^2$), $\varepsilon_1 = 0.7$, $T_1 = 800\text{ K}$, $F_{AB} = 0.172$. Surface B: radius $1\text{ m}$ (area $A_2 = \pi\text{ m}^2$), $\varepsilon_2 = 0.8$, $T_2 = 500\text{ K}$, $F_{BA} = 0.172$. Net heat flow rate by radiation from surface A in kW is ___ (round off to 1 decimal place). Given: Stefan-Boltzmann constant $\sigma = 5.67 \times 10^{-8}\text{ W m}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4}$

Explanation

Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q25

MCQ[1 Mark]

Among the following options, a process for liquid-liquid separation is (A) Smelting (B) Roasting (C) Sintering (D) Calcination

(A)

Smelting

(B)

Roasting

(C)

Sintering

(D)

Calcination

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q26

MCQ[1 Mark]

The most effective concentration step for sulfide ores is (A) Froth flotation (B) Magnetic separation (C) Gravity separation (D) Electrostatic separation

(A)

Froth flotation

(B)

Magnetic separation

(C)

Gravity separation

(D)

Electrostatic separation

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Ironmaking

Q27

MCQ[1 Mark]

The gas distribution in a blast furnace is controlled by the shape of (A) Cohesive zone (B) Deadman zone (C) Raceway zone (D) Chemical reserve zone

(A)

Cohesive zone

(B)

Deadman zone

(C)

Raceway zone

(D)

Chemical reserve zone

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Primary and Secondary Steelmaking

Q28

MCQ[2 Marks]

For supersonic $O_{2}$ jet in basic oxygen furnace steelmaking, choose the correct combination from the following: (1) Converging-diverging nozzle (2) Diverging-converging nozzle (3) $O_{2}$ velocity greater than sound velocity at nozzle throat (Mach number > 1) (4) $O_{2}$ velocity equal to sound velocity at nozzle throat (Mach number = 1) (5) Exit $O_{2}$ jet pressure > atmospheric pressure (6) Exit $O_{2}$ jet pressure < atmospheric pressure (A) (1), (4), (5) (B) (1), (3), (6) (C) (2), (3), (5) (D) (2), (4), (5)

(A)

(1), (4), (5)

(B)

(1), (3), (6)

(C)

(2), (3), (5)

(D)

(2), (4), (5)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q29

MCQ[2 Marks]

Elutriator is used to separate particles based on their sizes in flowing air as shown in the figure. Assuming spherical particles, the diameter ($D_{50}$) of the suspended particles which have 50% chance to report to overflow by turbulent air flow is expressed as...

(A)

Option A

(B)

Option B

(C)

Option C

(D)

Option D

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q30

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the processes in Column I with the corresponding applications in Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Fused salt electrolysis (Q) Carbothermal reduction (R) Oxidation-refining (S) Matte converting\nColumn II: (1) Ironmaking (2) Aluminium extraction (3) Copper extraction (4) Steelmaking (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(A)

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B)

P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C)

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D)

P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Ironmaking

Q31

MSQ[2 Marks]

Which of the following is/are the role(s) of coke in a blast furnace? (A) reducing agent (B) heat source (C) gas permeable medium (D) flux

(A)

reducing agent

(B)

heat source

(C)

gas permeable medium

(D)

flux

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q32

MSQ[2 Marks]

Identify the INCORRECT statement(s) (A) Calcination is typically exothermic and roasting is usually endothermic. (B) Coking of coal is carried out in a shaft furnace. (C) The aims of extractive metallurgy processing are separation, compound formation, metal production, and metal purification. (D) The secondary steelmaking offers steel cleanliness, composition adjustments, and temperature adjustments.

(A)

Calcination is typically exothermic and roasting is usually endothermic.

(B)

Coking of coal is carried out in a shaft furnace.

(C)

The aims of extractive metallurgy processing are separation, compound formation, metal production, and metal purification.

(D)

The secondary steelmaking offers steel cleanliness, composition adjustments, and temperature adjustments.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles

Q33

NAT[2 Marks]

Copper ore assaying $10\text{ wt.}\%$ Cu is fed to a concentration plant at the rate of $100\text{ tons/h}$. If the grades of concentrate and tailing are $30\text{ wt.}\%$ Cu and $1\text{ wt.}\%$ Cu, respectively, the percentage recovery of copper in concentrate is ___ (round off to nearest integer).

Explanation

Physical Metallurgy

7 Questions

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Diffusion in Solids

Q34

MCQ[1 Mark]

For self-diffusion in polycrystalline copper with a lattice diffusion coefficient $D_{L}$, grain boundary diffusion coefficient $D_{GB}$, and surface diffusion coefficient $D_{S}$, the correct relationship is (A) $D_{S} > D_{GB} > D_{L}$ (B) $D_{L} > D_{S} > D_{GB}$ (C) $D_{GB} > D_{S} > D_{L}$ (D) $D_{GB} = D_{S} = D_{L}$

(A)

D_{S}>D_{GB}>D_{L}

(B)

D_{L}>D_{S}>D_{GB}

(C)

D_{GB}>D_{S}>D_{L}

(D)

D_{GB}=D_{S}=D_{L}

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections

Q35

MCQ[1 Mark]

Magnitude of Burgers vector of the dislocation resulting from reaction of dislocations with Burgers vectors $\frac{a}{2}[1\text{ }0\text{ }1]$ and $\frac{a}{2}[0\text{ }\bar{1}\text{ }\bar{1}]$ is (A) $\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}$ (B) $\sqrt{2}a$ (C) $\frac{a}{2}$ (D) $2a$

(A)

\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}

(B)

\sqrt{2}a

(C)

\frac{a}{2}

(D)

2 a

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections

Q36

MSQ[1 Mark]

The condition(s) for high degree of mutual substitutional solid solubility for two metals is/are (A) metals should have same valence (B) metals should have same crystal structure (C) the difference in atomic size of metals should be less than 15% (D) the difference in electronegativity of metals should be large

(A)

metals should have same valence

(B)

metals should have same crystal structure

(C)

the difference in atomic size of metals should be less than 15%

(D)

the difference in electronegativity of metals should be large

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Principles of Heat Treatment and Corrosion

Q37

MSQ[2 Marks]

For the given schematic TTT diagram of an eutectoid steel, the following statement(s) is/are true for the heat treatment schedules HT-1, HT-2, and HT-3. (A) HT-3 leads to the formation of a pearlite microstructure (B) HT-1 leads to a predominantly martensite microstructure (C) HT-2 leads to a bainite microstructure (D) HT-3 leads to a mixture of pearlite and bainite microstructure

(A)

HT-3 leads to the formation of a pearlite microstructure

(B)

HT-1 leads to a predominantly martensite microstructure

(C)

HT-2 leads to a bainite microstructure

(D)

HT-3 leads to a mixture of pearlite and bainite microstructure

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections

Q38

MSQ[2 Marks]

A dislocation loop PQRSTU is on the $(1\text{ }1\text{ }1)$ plane of a cubic single crystal with $\frac{1}{6}[\bar{1}\text{ }2\text{ }\bar{1}]$ Burgers vector. The dislocation segments $\vec{PU}$ and $\vec{PQ}$ are parallel to $[0\text{ }1\text{ }1]$ and $[1\text{ }\bar{1}\text{ }0]$ directions, respectively. The correct statement(s) is/are (A) Dislocation segment PQ is mixed in character. (B) Dislocation segment UT is screw in character. (C) Dislocation segment PU is mixed in character. (D) Dislocation segment QR is edge in character.

(A)

Dislocation segment PQ is mixed in character.

(B)

Dislocation segment UT is screw in character.

(C)

Dislocation segment PU is mixed in character.

(D)

Dislocation segment QR is edge in character.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Principles of Heat Treatment and Corrosion

Q39

MSQ[2 Marks]

Choose the correct statement(s) in the context of fusion welding of austenitic stainless steel containing about $0.06\text{ wt.}\%$ carbon. (A) Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is poorer than base material. (B) Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is superior than fusion zone. (C) Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is same as fusion zone. (D) Corrosion resistance is same for fusion zone, heat affected zone, and base material.

(A)

Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is poorer than base material.

(B)

Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is superior than fusion zone.

(C)

Corrosion resistance of heat affected zone is same as fusion zone.

(D)

Corrosion resistance is same for fusion zone, heat affected zone, and base material.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections

Q40

NAT[2 Marks]

Diffraction pattern of a polycrystalline BCC metal is obtained using monochromatic X-rays of wavelength $0.25\text{ nm}$. If the first peak occurs at Bragg angle ($\theta$) of $30^{\circ}$, then the radius of the metal atom in nm is ___ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

Mechanical Behaviour of Materials

5 Questions

GATE→2023→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation

Q41

MCQ[1 Mark]

The mechanism of creep for a single crystal as depicted in the schematic is... (A) Nabarro-Herring creep (B) Grain boundary sliding (C) Dislocation creep (D) Coble creep

(A)

Nabarro-Herring creep

(B)

Grain boundary sliding

(C)

Dislocation creep

(D)

Coble creep

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation

Q42

MSQ[1 Mark]

When cracks propagate in a brittle material, the following option(s) is/are correct (A) elastic strain energy decreases (B) surface energy increases (C) surface energy decreases (D) elastic strain energy increases

(A)

elastic strain energy decreases

(B)

surface energy increases

(C)

surface energy decreases

(D)

elastic strain energy increases

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation

Q43

MSQ[1 Mark]

Which of the following is/are responsible for reducing the high cycle fatigue life of a component? (A) increasing the mean stress at constant amplitude (B) increasing the surface roughness (C) employing shot peening (D) absence of sharp corners in the component

(A)

increasing the mean stress at constant amplitude

(B)

increasing the surface roughness

(C)

employing shot peening

(D)

absence of sharp corners in the component

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Elasticity, Plasticity, and Yield Criteria

Q44

NAT[2 Marks]

A thin plate is loaded in plane stress condition with $\sigma_{xx} = 110\text{ MPa}$, $\sigma_{yy} = -50\text{ MPa}$, $\tau_{xy} = -70\text{ MPa}$\nThe maximum principal stress in MPa is ___ (round off to nearest integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation

Q45

NAT[2 Marks]

A specimen containing maximum initial surface crack of size $1.5\text{ mm}$ is subjected to cyclic loading with $\sigma_{max} = 300\text{ MPa}$ and $\sigma_{min} = 0\text{ MPa}$. Assuming specimen geometric factor of $1$, and referring to the given figure, the crack growth rate in $\mu\text{m cycle}^{-1}$ is ___ (round off to nearest integer).

Explanation

Manufacturing Processes

8 Questions

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Working (Hot, Warm, Cold)

Q46

MCQ[1 Mark]

Match the defects in Column I with corresponding metal forming techniques in Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Cold shut (Q) Zipper breaks (R) Stretcher strains (S) Center burst\nColumn II: (1) Rolling (2) Sheet metal forming (3) Drawing (4) Forging (A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(A)

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B)

P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(C)

P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(D)

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Working (Hot, Warm, Cold)

Q47

MCQ[1 Mark]

In rolling, the point on the surface of contact between roll and sheet where surface velocity of the roll is equal to velocity of the sheet is referred as (A) no-slip point (B) no-stick point (C) maximum slip point (D) maximum stick point

(A)

no-slip point

(B)

no-stick point

(C)

maximum slip point

(D)

maximum stick point

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Non-destructive Testing (NDT)

Q48

MSQ[1 Mark]

The non-destructive testing technique(s) for detecting internal defects in a steel component is/are (A) X-ray tomography (B) Ultrasonic technique (C) Gamma radiography (D) Dye penetrant technique

(A)

X-ray tomography

(B)

Ultrasonic technique

(C)

Gamma radiography

(D)

Dye penetrant technique

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Casting

Q49

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the components in Column I with corresponding manufacturing processes in Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Crank shaft (Q) Machine bed (R) Automobile brake pad (S) Beverage can\nColumn II: (1) Sheet metal forming (2) Forging (3) Casting (4) Powder metallurgy (A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(A)

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B)

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)

P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(D)

P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Joining and Powder Metallurgy

Q50

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match the welding techniques in Column I with the most appropriate applications in Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Submerged arc welding (Q) Electroslag welding (R) Shielded metal arc welding (S) Resistance spot welding\nColumn II: (1) Thick sections (2) Surfacing and repair (3) Thin sheets (4) Flat position (A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(A)

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B)

P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C)

P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(D)

P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Casting

Q51

MSQ[2 Marks]

Compared to top gating, the effect(s) of bottom gating in sand mold casting is/are (A) reduced melt oxidation (B) reduced mold erosion (C) enhanced melt oxidation (D) enhanced mold erosion

(A)

reduced melt oxidation

(B)

reduced mold erosion

(C)

enhanced melt oxidation

(D)

enhanced mold erosion

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Working (Hot, Warm, Cold)

Q52

NAT[2 Marks]

Strain hardening behavior of an alloy is given by $\sigma = 1100\text{ }\epsilon^{0.3}$, where $\sigma$ and $\epsilon$ are true stress and true strain, respectively. The alloy is cold drawn to an unknown amount of strain, followed by tensile testing. If the tensile test showed $10\%$ reduction in area at maximum load, then the unknown amount of strain from prior cold work is ___ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Joining and Powder Metallurgy

Q53

NAT[2 Marks]

During arc welding, the actual heat input is $200\text{ J mm}^{-3}$ and the current and voltage are $200\text{ A}$ and $20\text{ V}$, respectively. For a weld cross-sectional area of $2\text{ mm}^2$ and heat transfer efficiency of $0.9$, the velocity of welding is ___ $\text{mm s}^{-1}$ (Round off to the nearest integer).

Explanation

Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials

2 Questions

GATE→2023→Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials→Electronic and Magnetic Properties

Q54

MCQ[1 Mark]

Diamond has low (A) electrical conductivity (B) modulus of elasticity (C) hardness (D) thermal conductivity

(A)

electrical conductivity

(B)

modulus of elasticity

(C)

hardness

(D)

thermal conductivity

Explanation

GATE→2023→Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials→Electronic and Magnetic Properties

Q55

MCQ[2 Marks]

Match Column I with Column II.\nColumn I: (P) Gallium arsenide (Q) Barium titanate (R) Iron 4 wt.% silicon (S) Yttrium-barium-copper oxide\nColumn II: (1) Superconductor (2) Soft magnetic material (3) Semiconductor (4) Piezoelectric material (A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(A)

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B)

P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(C)

P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(D)

P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Explanation

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q56

MCQ[1 Mark]

"You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the earliest." (A) you are (B) your (C) you're (D) yore

(A)

you are

(B)

your

(C)

you're

(D)

yore

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q57

MCQ[1 Mark]

Blueprint : Design :: Guidelines : _________ (By word meaning) (A) Sight (B) Site (C) Cite (D) Plagiarise

(A)

Sight

(B)

Site

(C)

Cite

(D)

Plagiarise

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q58

MCQ[1 Mark]

In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with $PS = 7\text{ cm}$, $PT = 4\text{ cm}$ and $PV = 5\text{ cm}$. What is the length of $RS$ in cm?

(A)

\frac{20}{7}

(B)

\frac{28}{5}

(C)

\frac{9}{2}

(D)

\frac{35}{4}

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q59

MCQ[1 Mark]

In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal... Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty? (A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad. (B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal. (C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets. (D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

(A)

Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.

(B)

Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.

(C)

All Fields medalists are part-time poets.

(D)

Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q60

MCQ[1 Mark]

A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way such that each part is a mirror image... minimum number of squares that must be coloured black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(A)

3

(B)

4

(C)

5

(D)

6

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q61

MCQ[2 Marks]

Human beings are one among many creatures... If "Some human beings are not cruel creatures" is FALSE, which statements can be inferred? (i) All human beings are cruel creatures. (ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures. (iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings. (iv) No human beings are cruel creatures. (A) only (i) (B) only (iii) and (iv) (C) only (i) and (ii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(A)

only (i)

(B)

only (iii) and (iv)

(C)

only (i) and (ii)

(D)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q62

MCQ[2 Marks]

To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of $3:1$. The cost of sand and that of cement are in the ratio of $1:2$. If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is $1000$ rupees, what is the cost (in rupees) of cement used? (A) 400 (B) 600 (C) 800 (D) 200

(A)

400

(B)

600

(C)

800

(D)

200

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q63

MCQ[2 Marks]

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri Lanka... Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be inferred with certainty? (A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka's economic crisis is that it does not have enough foreign exchange. (B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis. (C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework. (D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

(A)

According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka's economic crisis is that it does not have enough foreign exchange.

(B)

The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.

(C)

According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework.

(D)

The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q64

MCQ[2 Marks]

The coefficient of $x^4$ in the polynomial $(x-1)^3(x-2)^3$ is equal to (A) 33 (B) -3 (C) 30 (D) 21

(A)

33

(B)

-3

(C)

30

(D)

21

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q65

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical and are not allowed to overlap. (A) circle (B) regular octagon (C) regular pentagon (D) rhombus

(A)

circle

(B)

regular octagon

(C)

regular pentagon

(D)

rhombus

Explanation