Given a function f(t)=e−at, where a is a constant. The Laplace transform of the function is L[f(t)]=F(s). Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) F(s)=s−a1
(B) F(s)=s2−a2s
(C) F(s)=s2−a2a
(D) F(s)=s+a1
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra
Q2
MCQ[1 Mark]
Select the correct pair of eigenvectors for the following symmetric matrix:
[1224]
(A) [12] and [−21]
(B) [12] and [21]
(C) [−1−2] and [21]
(D) [−12] and [2−1]
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Calculus
Q3
MCQ[1 Mark]
Choose one correct option. Given w=f(ax+by) where a and b are constants. The value of (b∂x∂w−a∂y∂w) is:
(A) −a
(B) b
(C) b−a
(D) 0
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Vector Calculus
Q4
NAT[1 Mark]
Value of scalar triple product a⋅(b×c) is (answer in integer)
a=2i^−3j^+4k^b=i^+2j^−3k^c=3i^+4j^−k^
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics
Q5
NAT[1 Mark]
A box contains 20 thermometers, 3 of which are defective. One person randomly draws 2 thermometers from the box, one-by-one, without replacement. The probability in percent (rounded-off to two decimal places) that none of these TWO thermometers is defective, is ___ %.
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Probability and Statistics
Q6
NAT[2 Marks]
Consider a distribution with the following probability density function:
f(x)={0.5,0.0,0<x<2Otherwise\nGiven that the mean of the above probability distribution is 1, the variance (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___.
Solution of the differential equation 10x2dx2d2y−20xdxdy+22.4y=0 is y=c1xm1+c2xm2 where m1=m2. The value of m1+m2 (answer in integer) is
GATE→2026→Engineering Mathematics→Vector Calculus
Q9
NAT[2 Marks]
Magnitude of the vector in the direction of the most rapid increase of ϕ(x,y,z)=x2−yz at point P(3,4,1) is ___.
Metallurgical Thermodynamics
9 Questions
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q10
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following is NOT a state function?
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Entropy
(C) Work
(D) Internal Energy
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q11
MCQ[1 Mark]
For a regular solution, which one of the following statements is correct? (ΔHmix is the enthalpy of mixing and ΔSmix is the entropy of mixing)
(A) Both ΔHmix and ΔSmix are finite
(B) ΔHmix is zero and ΔSmix is finite
(C) ΔHmix is finite and ΔSmix is zero
(D) Both ΔHmix and ΔSmix are zero
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q12
MSQ[1 Mark]
Choose the correct option(s). Here A is the Helmholtz free energy and G is the Gibbs free energy.
(A) A provides a criterion for equilibrium in a system with constant temperature and constant pressure
(B) G provides a criterion for equilibrium in a system with constant temperature and constant pressure
(C) A provides a criterion for equilibrium in a system with constant temperature and constant volume
(D) G provides a criterion for equilibrium in a system with constant temperature and constant volume
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q13
NAT[1 Mark]
For an equilibrium phase diagram of a binary A-B alloy at a constant pressure as shown in the figure, the degree of freedom at 'X' is (answer in integer)
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q14
NAT[2 Marks]
20 g of Au and 20 g of Ag form an ideal solid solution. Total entropy of mixing is ___ J/K.
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q15
NAT[2 Marks]
2 moles of an ideal gas are reversibly expanded from 10 L to 20 L isothermally at 27∘C. Magnitude of work done is ___ Joules.
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q16
NAT[2 Marks]
For 2 moles of metal with Cp=20+5×10−3T, change in enthalpy upon heating from 300 K to 600 K is ___ Joules.
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q17
NAT[2 Marks]
Given Ellingham oxidation equations for solid and liquid metal M, the melting point of metal M is ___ Kelvin.
GATE→2026→Metallurgical Thermodynamics→Laws of Thermodynamics and Solutions
Q18
NAT[2 Marks]
For the combustion of methane with stoichiometric air, estimated adiabatic flame temperature is ___ Kelvin.
Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes
6 Questions
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Mass Transfer and Dimensional Analysis
Q19
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? In convective heat transfer for laminar flow over a flat plate, Nusselt number is a function of Reynolds and Prandtl numbers. Similarly, in convective mass transfer, Sherwood number is a function of:
(A) Schmidt number and Reynolds number
(B) Weber number and Reynolds number
(C) Schmidt number and Weber number
(D) Weber number and Prandtl number
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Heat Transfer
Q20
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? For a solid immersed in a fluid, the convective heat transfer coefficient across the solid-fluid interface is NOT dependent on:
(A) Solid-fluid interfacial area
(B) Thermal conductivity of solid
(C) Roughness of solid surface
(D) Viscosity of fluid
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer
Q21
NAT[1 Mark]
Two parallel plates, with Newtonian incompressible liquid in between, are 2 mm apart. The upper plate is stationary and the lower plate moves with a velocity of 4 m/s. A force per unit area of 5 N/m2 is applied parallel to the lower plate to maintain its motion. The viscosity of the liquid (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___ ×10−3 N⋅s/m2.
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer
Q22
MCQ[2 Marks]
The equation below represents steady-state laminar flow of a fluid through a horizontal tube:
ηr1drd(rdrdvz)−dzdP=0\nWhich one of the following statements related to the above case is NOT correct?
(A) The fluid is Newtonian
(B) Shear stress is maximum at the center (r=0)
(C) Radial velocity is zero
(D) There is no variation of vz in z-direction
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Momentum Transfer
Q23
MSQ[2 Marks]
Choose the correct option(s). Permeability of a porous bed made of spherical particles is/are:
(A) Independent of particle size
(B) Increases with increase in particle size
(C) Decreases with increase in particle size
(D) Affected by particle size distribution
GATE→2026→Transport Phenomena and Rate Processes→Heat Transfer
Q24
NAT[2 Marks]
For a cylindrical furnace with 0.1 m diameter and 0.2 m height operating at 1873 K, power needed is ___ W.
Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy
6 Questions
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles
Q25
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? Red mud is generated in the production of:
(A) Aluminium
(B) Iron
(C) Titanium
(D) Copper
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Primary and Secondary Steelmaking
Q26
MCQ[1 Mark]
Ergun equation is NOT applied in which one of the following unit operations to analyze gas flow behavior:
(A) Blast Furnace
(B) Sintering
(C) Roasting
(D) LD Converter
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles
Q27
MCQ[2 Marks]
Match the unit operation in Column I with the resulting product in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) COREX Process
(Q) Bayer Process
(R) Matte Smelting
(S) MIDREX Process\nColumn II:
(1) Direct Reduced Iron
(2) Pig Iron
(3) Alumina
(4) Copper
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles
Q28
NAT[2 Marks]
An ore containing 30 wt.% chalcopyrite has ___ wt.% copper.
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Ironmaking
Q29
NAT[2 Marks]
Amount of ore required to produce 1000 kg of hot metal with given blast furnace parameters is ___ kg[cite: 66, 70].
GATE→2026→Mineral Processing and Extractive Metallurgy→Mineral Beneficiation and Extraction Principles
Q30
NAT[2 Marks]
Decrease in decomposition potential when replacing inert anode with carbon anode at 1300 K is ___ Volts.
Physical Metallurgy
13 Questions
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections
Q31
MCQ[1 Mark]
During metallography, Nital is the most commonly used etchant for
(A) Bronze
(B) Brass
(C) Mild Steel
(D) Aluminium
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections
Q32
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? In a face-centered cubic metal, a Shockley partial is:
(A) Perfect and mobile dislocation
(B) Perfect and immobile dislocation
(C) Imperfect and immobile dislocation
(D) Imperfect and mobile dislocation
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Principles of Heat Treatment and Corrosion
Q33
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? For Al - 4% Ag alloy (composition in atom %), the correct sequence of operations involved in precipitation hardening is:
(A) Quenching → Aging → Solution treatment
(B) Solution treatment → Aging → Quenching
(C) Aging → Solution treatment → Quenching
(D) Solution treatment → Quenching → Aging
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Diffusion in Solids
Q34
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? In a binary alloy system, during spinodal decomposition, uphill diffusion occurs:
(A) From higher to lower concentration and from higher to lower chemical potential
(B) From higher to lower concentration and from lower to higher chemical potential
(C) From lower to higher concentration and from lower to higher chemical potential
(D) From lower to higher concentration and from higher to lower chemical potential
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Phase Transformation and Solid-state Transformations
Q35
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? In Al - 4 wt.% Cu alloy during isothermal aging, the correct precipitation sequence is:
(A) θ′′→θ′→θ→GP zone
(B) GP zone→θ→θ′→θ′′
(C) θθ′θ′′→GP zone
(D) GP zone→θ′′→θ′→θ
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Principles of Heat Treatment and Corrosion
Q36
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following options is correct? After cold-working of a metallic specimen, during the recovery stage, its electrical conductivity:
(A) Always increases
(B) Always decreases
(C) Can increase or decrease
(D) Remains unaffected
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections
Q37
MCQ[1 Mark]
Residual stress present in a material can be determined by which one of the following techniques:
(A) X-ray Diffraction (XRD)
(B) Tensile Testing
(C) Thermo-Gravimetric Analysis (TGA)
(D) Optical Microscopy
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Principles of Heat Treatment and Corrosion
Q38
MSQ[1 Mark]
Which of the following elements, when present in iron, enhance(s) its corrosion resistance?
(A) H
(B) Cr
(C) S
(D) C
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Phase Transformation and Solid-state Transformations
Q39
NAT[2 Marks]
An alloy having composition W-20 wt.% Ni is prepared by mixing elemental powders. The resulting powder mixture is liquid phase sintered at 1550∘C for 1 hour. The tungsten grain size is 70μm and neck diameter is 35μm. If W-Ni interfacial energy is 0.30 J/m2, W-W interfacial energy is ___ J/m2.
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections
Q40
NAT[2 Marks]
A metal having body-centered cubic structure is analyzed through X-ray diffraction using monochromatic X-ray of wavelength 0.154 nm. The diffraction angle (2θ) corresponding to {200} plane is 60∘. The atomic radius is ___ nm.
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Materials Characterisation and Crystal Imperfections
Q41
NAT[2 Marks]
The lattice parameter of Ni is 0.35 nm and shear modulus is 76 GPa. Strain energy per unit length of screw dislocation is ___ ×10−9 J/m.
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Phase Transformation and Solid-state Transformations
Q42
NAT[2 Marks]
For homogeneous nucleation with ΔGv=−0.5×108 J/m3 and γ=0.1 J/m2, the critical nucleus size is ___ nm.
GATE→2026→Physical Metallurgy→Diffusion in Solids
Q43
NAT[2 Marks]
During carburizing of steel at 950∘C, the time required to reach 0.8859 wt.% C at 0.2 mm depth is ___ seconds.
Mechanical Behaviour of Materials
5 Questions
GATE→2026→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation
Q44
MCQ[1 Mark]
Deformation mechanism map of a given material is used for determining which one of the following properties?
(A) Fatigue strength
(B) Creep rate
(C) Tensile strength
(D) Impact toughness
GATE→2026→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Dislocation Theory and Strengthening Mechanisms
Q45
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following dislocation dissociation reactions is feasible in face-centered cubic metals?
(A) 2a[01ˉ1]→6a[12ˉ1]+6a[1ˉ1ˉ2]
(B) 2a[01ˉ1]→6a[112]+6a[211ˉ]
(C) 2a[01ˉ1]→6a[11ˉ2]+6a[1ˉ2ˉ1ˉ]
(D) 2a[01ˉ1]→6a[12ˉ1]+6a[21ˉ1ˉ]
GATE→2026→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation
Q46
MCQ[2 Marks]
Match the concepts listed in Column I with the associated terms listed in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) Paris Law
(Q) Schmid Factor
(R) Larson - Miller Parameter
(S) Portevin - Le Chatelier Effect\nColumn II:
(1) Creep
(2) Fatigue
(3) Dynamic Strain Aging
(4) Critical Resolved Shear Stress
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
GATE→2026→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Dislocation Theory and Strengthening Mechanisms
Q47
NAT[2 Marks]
A cylindrical single crystal of copper having 10 mm diameter is deformed under uniaxial tensile load of 2200 N. If α=β, the critical resolved shear stress (CRSS) is ___ MPa.
GATE→2026→Mechanical Behaviour of Materials→Fracture, Fatigue, and High Temperature Deformation
Q48
NAT[2 Marks]
For plane strain fracture toughness (KIc) testing of Maraging steel, minimum thickness to achieve valid KIc is ___ (Given: KIc=90 MPam, yield stress =900 MPa)
Manufacturing Processes
5 Questions
GATE→2026→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Joining and Powder Metallurgy
Q49
MCQ[1 Mark]
Which one of the following fusion welding techniques results in least Heat-Affected Zone (HAZ)?
(A) Submerged Arc Welding (SAW)
(B) Tungsten Inert Gas Welding (TIG)
(C) Electron Beam Welding (EBW)
(D) Oxy-Acetylene Welding (OAW)
GATE→2026→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Working (Hot, Warm, Cold)
Q50
MCQ[2 Marks]
Match the type of defects in Column I with the corresponding metal manufacturing processes listed in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) Edge Cracking
(Q) Flashline Cracking
(R) Chevron Cracking
(S) Cracked Core\nColumn II:
(1) Casting
(2) Forging
(3) Rolling
(4) Extrusion
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
Match the descriptions listed in Column I with the corresponding non-destructive testing methods listed in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) Internal flaws in railroad wheel
(Q) In-service monitoring of crack
(R) Inclusion in mild steel
(S) Surface crack in Al-based alloy\nColumn II:
(1) Ultrasonic
(2) Radiography
(3) Dye Penetrant
(4) Acoustic Emission
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
GATE→2026→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Joining and Powder Metallurgy
Q52
NAT[2 Marks]
Iron powder is compacted at room temperature to 75% of its theoretical density. The as-pressed iron compact is sintered in inert-gas atmosphere at 1200∘C to 90% of its theoretical density. Assuming isotropic shrinkage, the linear shrinkage (in percent) undergone by the iron compact during sintering (rounded off to one decimal place) is ___ %.
GATE→2026→Manufacturing Processes→Metal Working (Hot, Warm, Cold)
Q53
NAT[2 Marks]
For cold-rolling an aluminium plate from 50 mm to 25 mm with roll diameter 1250 mm, the minimum required coefficient of friction is ___.
Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials
2 Questions
GATE→2026→Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials→Classification, Chemical Bonding, and Crystal Structures
Q54
MCQ[2 Marks]
Match the crystal systems in Column I with the corresponding axial lengths (a,b,c) and interaxial angles (α,β,γ) provided in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) Tetragonal
(Q) Rhombohedral
(R) Orthorhombic
(S) Monoclinic\nColumn II:
(1) a=b=c, α=β=γ=90∘
(2) a=b=c, α=β=γ=90∘
(3) a=b=c, α=γ=90∘=β
(4) a=b=c, α=β=γ=90∘
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
GATE→2026→Materials Science and Non-Metallic Materials→Electronic and Magnetic Properties
Q55
MCQ[2 Marks]
Match the terms in Column I with the corresponding attributes in Column II:\nColumn I:
(P) Wiedemann-Franz law
(Q) Neel temperature
(R) Hall voltage
(S) Curie law\nColumn II:
(1) Charge carrier concentration
(2) Paramagnetism
(3) Ratio between thermal conductivity and electrical conductivity of metals
(4) Diamagnetism
(5) Anti-ferromagnetism
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
General Aptitude
10 Questions
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability
Q56
MCQ[1 Mark]
'The team _______ more than 300 runs in 20 overs _______ rains. However, some players needed to improve their batting skills.' Choose the option with the correct sequence of words to fill the blanks.
(A) score; despite
(B) scoring; instead of
(C) scored; despite
(D) scoring; in spite of
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q57
MCQ[1 Mark]
If a positive real x satisfies the following equation log2x+log2x=48, then the value of x is
(A) 216
(B) 416
(C) 214
(D) 414
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q58
MCQ[1 Mark]
The next figure (indicated by '?') in the sequence is...
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability
Q59
MCQ[1 Mark]
'All the mangoes in the basket are good.' If the above statement is false, then which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
(A) All the mangoes in the basket are not good.
(B) No mango in the basket is good.
(C) In the basket, some of the mangoes are good and some are not good.
(D) There exists at least one mango in the basket that is not good.
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q60
MCQ[1 Mark]
Consider the following statements about four numbers:
(S1) The average of the four numbers is 25
(S2) Each number is at most 40
(S3) Each number is at least 20\nChoose the option that is necessarily correct.
(A) (S1) and (S2) together imply (S3)
(B) (S2) and (S3) together imply (S1)
(C) (S1) and (S3) together imply (S2)
(D) (S1) implies (S3)
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability
Q61
MCQ[2 Marks]
'People are crowding around [blank 1] pit into which [blank 2] elephant has fallen. I have never seen an elephant looking more bewildered [blank 3] miserable. Here it is in a most undignified position, thrust into a pit and made to look up [blank 4] a vast, curiosity-stricken crowd.' Choose the option with the correct sequence of words to fill the blanks.
(A) an; a; at; and
(B) a; an; and; at
(C) and; a; an; at
(D) at; a; an; and
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Data Interpretation
Q62
MCQ[2 Marks]
The table lists the unit selling price of five products P, Q, R, S, and T. On a particular day, 250 items were sold with the average selling price of Rs. 60. The observations are:
- Q of S = 2× Q of T
- Q of R = 3× Q of T
- Q of Q = 4× Q of T\nPrices: P = 50, Q = 100, R = 60, S = 60, T = 40.\nWhat is the quantity of product P sold on that day?
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 70
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q63
MCQ[2 Marks]
Consider a string P of length l laid out as a straight-line segment. String K is a semicircular arc with P as diameter. Both strings are shortened by length x, such that shortened K forms a full circle with shortened P as its diameter. The value of x/l is
(A) π
(B) 2ππ−1
(C) 2(π−1)π
(D) π−1π
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q64
MCQ[2 Marks]
The Roman senator Meritorius, his brother, his son, and his daughter have varying oratory skill levels, seated in a 2x2 grid. Conditions given: (i) Daughter and brother in same column. (ii) Son is seated diagonally across the sibling of the worst orator. (iii) Best and worst orators in the same row. Who is the best orator?
(A) Meritorius
(B) Meritorius' brother
(C) Meritorius' son
(D) Meritorius' daughter
GATE→2026→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude
Q65
MCQ[2 Marks]
Which one of the patterns labelled P, Q, R, and S is used to generate the given figure?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S