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General Aptitude(10)Engineering Mathematics(9)Applied Mechanics and Structures(8)Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics(8)Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering(21)Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering(9)

General Aptitude

10 Questions

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q1

MCQ[1 Mark]

"You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the earliest."

(A)

you are

(B)

your

(C)

you're

(D)

yore

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q2

MCQ[1 Mark]

______ :: Guidelines: Implement\nReferences: (By word meaning)

(A)

Sight

(B)

Site

(C)

Cite

(D)

Plagiarise

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q3

MCQ[1 Mark]

In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with $PS = 7$ cm, $PT = 4$ cm and $PV = 5$ cm. What is the length of RS in cm? (The diagram is representative.)

(A)

$\frac{20}{7}$

(B)

$\frac{28}{5}$

(C)

$\frac{9}{2}$

(D)

$\frac{35}{4}$

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q4

MCQ[1 Mark]

In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in Mathematics. When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college.\nBased only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)

Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.

(B)

Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.

(C)

All Fields medalists are part-time poets.

(D)

Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q5

MCQ[1 Mark]

A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line.\nThe given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the three black squares, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry?

(A)

3

(B)

4

(C)

5

(D)

6

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q6

MCQ[2 Marks]

Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given that the statement "Some human beings are not cruel creatures" is FALSE, then which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty? (i) All human beings are cruel creatures. (ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures. (iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings. (iv) No human beings are cruel creatures.

(A)

(i) only

(B)

only (iii) and (iv)

(C)

only (i) and (ii)

(D)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q7

MCQ[2 Marks]

To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2. If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?

(A)

400

(B)

600

(C)

800

(D)

200

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Verbal Ability

Q8

MCQ[2 Marks]

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri Lanka... Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be inferred with certainty?

(A)

Option A

(B)

Option B

(C)

According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework.

(D)

Option D

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q9

MCQ[2 Marks]

The coefficient of $x^4$ in the polynomial $(x-1)^3(x-2)^3$ is equal to

(A)

33

(B)

-3

(C)

30

(D)

21

Explanation

GATE→2023→General Aptitude→Quantitative Aptitude

Q10

MCQ[2 Marks]

Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical and are not allowed to overlap.

(A)

circle

(B)

regular octagon

(C)

regular pentagon

(D)

rhombus

Explanation

Engineering Mathematics

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra & Calculus

Q11

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider the function $z = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)$ where $x = u\sin v$ and $y = u\cos v$.\nThe partial derivative $\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}$ is

(A)

0

(B)

1

(C)

2

(D)

3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra & Calculus

Q12

MCQ[1 Mark]

Consider the function $z = x^{3}-2x^{2}y+xy^{2}+1$. The directional derivative of z at the point $(1, 2)$ along the direction $3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}$ is

(A)

0

(B)

-1

(C)

1

(D)

-2

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations, Complex Analysis & Probability

Q13

MSQ[1 Mark]

Let X be any random variable and $Y = -2X + 3$.\nIf $E[Y] = 1$ and $E[Y^2] = 9$, then which of the following are TRUE?

(A)

$E[X] = 1$

(B)

$E[X] = -2$

(C)

$\text{Var}(X) = 1$

(D)

$\text{Var}(X) = 2$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations, Complex Analysis & Probability

Q14

MSQ[1 Mark]

Consider the contour integral $\oint \frac{dz}{z^{4}+z^{3}-2z^{2}}$ along the curve $|z|=3$ oriented in the counterclockwise direction. If $\text{Res}[f,z_{0}]$ denotes the residue of $f(z)$ at the point $z_{0}$, then which of the following are TRUE?

(A)

$\text{Res}[f,0] = -1/4$

(B)

$\text{Res}[f,1] = 1/3$

(C)

$\text{Res}[f,-2] = -1/12$

(D)

$\text{Res}[f,2] = -1$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations, Complex Analysis & Probability

Q15

NAT[1 Mark]

If a random variable X has the probability density function $f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{5}{32}x^{4} & \text{if } 0 \le x \le 2 \\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$\nand if $Y = X^{2}$ then the expected value of Y is (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra & Calculus

Q16

MCQ[2 Marks]

The value of the surface integral $\iint (x^{2}\,dy\,dz+y^{2}\,dz\,dx+z^{2}\,dx\,dy)$ over the surface of the cube given by $0 \le x \le 2$, $0 \le y \le 2$, $0 \le z \le 2$ is

(A)

12

(B)

24

(C)

36

(D)

48

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra & Calculus

Q17

MCQ[2 Marks]

If the system of linear equations, $x-ay-z=0$, $ax-y-z=0$, $x+y-z=0$, has infinite number of solutions, then the possible values of a are

(A)

0, 1

(B)

-1, 2

(C)

-1, 1

(D)

0, -1

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Linear Algebra & Calculus

Q18

MSQ[2 Marks]

Let $L = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & -1 & -1 & -1 \\ -1 & 2 & -1 & 0 \\ -1 & -1 & 3 & 0 \\ -1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$. Which of the following are TRUE?

(A)

The matrix L is row equivalent to the specified matrix option A

(B)

The linear system Lx=b has a solution for all b

(C)

For b != [1, 1, 1, 1]^T, the system has a solution

(D)

Rank of the matrix L is 3

Explanation

GATE→2023→Engineering Mathematics→Differential Equations, Complex Analysis & Probability

Q19

NAT[2 Marks]

If $y(x)$ is the solution of the differential equation $(1+x^{2})y''-2xy'=0$\nsatisfying $y(0)=0$ and $y'(0)=3$, then $y(1)$ equals

Explanation

Applied Mechanics and Structures

8 Questions

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q20

MCQ[1 Mark]

Which method among the following is based on the strain energy principle?

(A)

Conjugate beam method

(B)

Castigliano's method

(C)

Slope-deflection method

(D)

Moment distribution method

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q21

MSQ[1 Mark]

The failure modes that may be observed in a riveted joint to fasten two plate members, subjected to shear load are

(A)

bending of the rivet

(B)

shearing of the rivet

(C)

tensile failure of a plate member

(D)

tensile failure of the rivet

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q22

NAT[1 Mark]

A solid cantilever shaft of diameter 0.1 m and length 2 m is subjected to a torque of 10 kN-m at the free end (shear modulus is 82 GPa).\nThe maximum induced shear stress is $N/mm^2$ (round off to the nearest integer).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q23

MCQ[2 Marks]

A simply supported beam with an overhang has experienced the bending moment as shown below. The corresponding concentrated load is

(A)

5 kN at mid span of PR

(B)

10 kN at Q

(C)

10 kN at mid span of RS

(D)

5 kN at S

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Vibrations & Machine Design

Q24

MSQ[2 Marks]

For a given time varying load applied on a single degree of freedom system, the dynamic response amplitude is always less than the static response amplitude if

(A)

the applied loading frequency is greater than 1.5 times the natural frequency of the system

(B)

the damping is greater than 70% of critical damping

(C)

the damping is exactly $1/3^{rd}$ of critical damping

(D)

the applied loading frequency is less than the natural frequency of the system for an undamped system

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q25

MSQ[2 Marks]

The stress field given would satisfy the strain compatibility condition if

(A)

both $\sigma_x$ and $\sigma_y$ are multiplied by $\frac{1}{2}$

(B)

both $\sigma_x$ and $\sigma_y$ are multiplied by 2

(C)

$\tau_{xy}$ is multiplied by $\frac{1}{2}$

(D)

$\tau_{xy}$ is multiplied by 2

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Vibrations & Machine Design

Q26

NAT[2 Marks]

A buoy of virtual mass 30 kg oscillates in a fluid medium as a single degree of freedom system. If the total damping in the system is set as $188.5\text{ N-s}/\text{m}$, such that the oscillation just ceases to occur, then the natural period of the system is s (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Applied Mechanics and Structures→Engineering Mechanics & Mechanics of Materials

Q27

NAT[2 Marks]

Consider a truss as shown in the following figure. The length of each member is 2 m. The area of cross section of each member is $100\text{ mm}^2$ and Young's modulus is $2 \times 10^5\text{ N/mm}^2$.\nThe vertical deflection at C is mm (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics

8 Questions

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Boundary Layer Theory, Vorticity & Hydrodynamic Model Testing

Q28

MCQ[1 Mark]

In dimensional analysis, according to Buckingham's \pi-theorem, if n is the total number of variables and m is the number of independent dimensions, then the maximum number of independent dimensionless \pi-groups will be

(A)

$m-n$

(B)

$mn$

(C)

$m+n$

(D)

$n-m$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Fluid Mechanics & Potential Flow Theory

Q29

MCQ[1 Mark]

A submerged cylinder of diameter 1 m is rotating clockwise at 100 rpm, in a flow with a free stream velocity of $10\text{ m/s}$. Assuming ideal flow, the number of stagnation points on the cylinder is

(A)

2

(B)

3

(C)

1

(D)

0

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Fluid Mechanics & Potential Flow Theory

Q30

NAT[1 Mark]

A piezometer and a pitot tube measure the static and the total pressure of a fluid in a pipe flow respectively. The piezometer reads 100 kPa and the pitot tube shows 200 kPa. The density of the fluid is $1000\text{ kg/m}^3$.\nThe velocity of the flow is m/s (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Fluid Mechanics & Potential Flow Theory

Q31

MCQ[2 Marks]

A fully filled water tank OABCD has a circular arc (AB) of radius 10 m at the bottom as shown in the following figure. The height BC is 10 m. The length OA and CD are 5 m and 15 m, respectively. The density of the water is $\rho\text{ kg}/\text{m}^3$ and the acceleration due to gravity is $g\text{ m}/\text{s}^2$.\nThe magnitude of the resultant hydrostatic force per unit width acting on AB in N/m lies between

(A)

190\rho g and 200\rho g

(B)

210\rho g and 220\rho g

(C)

230\rho g and 240\rho g

(D)

250\rho g and 260\rho g

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Fluid Mechanics & Potential Flow Theory

Q32

MCQ[2 Marks]

The velocity vector of a 2D flow field is given by $\vec{V}=2y^{2}\hat{i}+x^{2}t\hat{j}$.\nThe acceleration is

(A)

$4x^{2}ty\hat{i}+(x^{2}+4xy^{2}t)\hat{j}$

(B)

$4x^{2}ty\hat{i}-(x^{2}+4xy^{2}t)\hat{j}$

(C)

$4x^{2}ty\hat{i}+x^{2}\hat{j}$

(D)

$x^{2}\hat{j}$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Boundary Layer Theory, Vorticity & Hydrodynamic Model Testing

Q33

MCQ[2 Marks]

Water is flowing with a free stream velocity of $0.25\text{ m/s}$ around a submerged flat plate of 2 m length (in the direction of flow) and 1 m width. The local shear stress at a distance x from the leading edge of the plate is given by $\tau = \frac{0.332\rho u^{2}}{\sqrt{Re_{x}}}$\nwhere $\rho = 1000\text{ kg/m}^3$ is the density of the water, u is the free stream velocity and $Re_{x}$ is the Reynolds number at x. Assume that the flow is laminar, and the kinematic viscosity of water is $10^{-6}\text{ m}^2/\text{s}$.\nThe drag force (in Newton) acting on one side of the plate lies between

(A)

0 and 0.05

(B)

0.05 and 0.10

(C)

0.10 and 0.15

(D)

0.15 and 0.20

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Fluid Mechanics & Potential Flow Theory

Q34

MCQ[2 Marks]

For a 2D ideal flow, let $\varphi$ be the velocity potential and $\psi$ be the stream function.\nWhich one of the following is TRUE?

(A)

$\nabla^{2}\varphi=0$ and $|\nabla\psi|^{2}=|\nabla\varphi|^{2}$

(B)

$\nabla^{2}\varphi=0$ and $\nabla\cdot\nabla\varphi\neq 0$

(C)

$\nabla^{2}\psi=0$ and $|\nabla\psi|^{2}\neq|\nabla\varphi|^{2}$

(D)

$\nabla^{2}\psi=0$ and $\nabla\psi\times\nabla\varphi=0$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Fluid Mechanics and Marine Hydrodynamics→Boundary Layer Theory, Vorticity & Hydrodynamic Model Testing

Q35

MCQ[2 Marks]

A long body with elliptical cross section is held perpendicular to a 2D uniform steady flow field of horizontal velocity $U_{\infty}$ as shown in the following figure. The heights of the control volume (bounded by the dashed lines) at the inlet and outlet are 2h and 4h, respectively. The profile of the horizontal velocity far downstream is given by $U(y)=\frac{U_{\infty}y}{2h}$. The density of the fluid is $\rho$. The magnitude of the drag force per unit length acting on the body is

(A)

$\frac{2\rho{U_{\infty}}^{2}h}{3}$

(B)

$\frac{\rho{U_{\infty}}^{2}h}{3}$

(C)

$\frac{\rho{U_{\infty}}^{2}h}{2}$

(D)

$\frac{2\sqrt{2}\rho{U_{\infty}}^{2}h}{3}$

Explanation

Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering

21 Questions

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q36

MCQ[1 Mark]

In the following "GZ (righting lever arm)" versus "angle of heel" curve, the point 'X' indicates

(A)

angle of loll

(B)

angle of vanishing stability

(C)

deck edge immersion angle

(D)

trim angle

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q37

MCQ[1 Mark]

Comparing a catamaran (with a separation between demi-hulls) and a mono-hull craft of the same displacement and water plane area, the initial metacentric radius of the catamaran will be

(A)

same as that of the mono-hull

(B)

one-half of the mono-hull

(C)

greater than that of the mono-hull

(D)

one-third of the mono-hull

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Resistance, Propulsion & Ship Manoeuvring

Q38

MCQ[1 Mark]

The time series of rudder angle ($\delta$) and heading angle ($\psi$) during a ship's maneuver are shown in the following figure. Identify the maneuver and the associated parameters (p, q, r and s)

(A)

turning maneuver...

(B)

spiral maneuver...

(C)

zig-zag maneuver; p: heading angle, q: rudder angle, r: 1st overshoot angle, s: 2nd overshoot angle

(D)

zig-zag maneuver; p: heading angle...

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Physical Oceanography, Offshore Structures & Port Engineering

Q39

MCQ[1 Mark]

From the following, choose the offshore platform that can be used ONLY for offshore drilling purpose.

(A)

Jacket platform

(B)

Jackup platform

(C)

Tension leg platform

(D)

SPAR

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Motions, Structures & Strength

Q40

MCQ[1 Mark]

The buoyancy curve variation of a ship floating in still water and in waves is shown in the following figure. The total area under each curve is the same. The cases 'X' and 'Y' correspond to

(A)

X: wave crest amidships...

(B)

X: wave trough amidships...

(C)

X: wave trough amidships, Y: wave crest amidships

(D)

X: wave crest is amidships, Y: wave trough is amidships

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Motions, Structures & Strength

Q41

MSQ[1 Mark]

A stationary ship has longitudinal symmetry. The surge, sway and heave motions are represented by indices 1-2-3, respectively and roll, pitch and yaw motions are represented by indices 4-5-6, respectively. Which of the following are TRUE about the added mass ($A_{ij}$)?

(A)

$A_{35} = A_{53}$

(B)

$A_{62} = A_{26}$

(C)

$A_{46} = A_{64}$

(D)

$A_{33} = A_{55}$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Motions, Structures & Strength

Q42

MSQ[1 Mark]

A rectangular barge is freely floating in a drydock as shown in the following figure. For longitudinal strength analysis which of the following are TRUE?

(A)

The barge is considered as a free-free beam

(B)

At aft and forward ends: shear force = 0, bending moment = 0

(C)

The barge is considered as a fixed-fixed beam

(D)

At aft and forward ends: shear force != 0, bending moment != 0

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q43

NAT[1 Mark]

A ship of length 180 m has a displacement of 14400 tonnes and is floating on an even keel in sea water of density $1025\text{ kg/m}^3$. The trim changes by 0.18 m when a weight of 120 tonnes that is already onboard, is shifted 24 m forward.\nThe longitudinal metacentric height is m.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q44

NAT[1 Mark]

An oil tanker of breadth 20 m and having a displacement of 24000 tonnes in sea water (density of sea water $=1025\text{ kg/m}^3$) is carrying oil of relative density 0.8 in 9 longitudinally distributed tanks which are all half-filled. Each longitudinal tank is 12 m long and 16 m wide.\nThe apparent change in vertical center of gravity, due to the presence of oil in the tanks is m (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Physical Oceanography, Offshore Structures & Port Engineering

Q45

NAT[1 Mark]

For a regular sinusoidal wave propagating in deep water having wave height of 3.5 m and wave period of 9 s, the wave steepness is (round off to three decimal places).

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q46

MCQ[2 Marks]

Two 30 m long bilge keels of mass 40 tonnes each, are fitted at the turn of the bilge on port and starboard sides of a ship. The cross section of the bilge keel is shown in the following figure. Assume density of water $=1000\text{ kg/m}^3$. If the TPC (tonnes per centimeter) immersion of the ship is 50, then the change in the mean draft is cm

(A)

1

(B)

0.8

(C)

0.6

(D)

1.6

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Physical Oceanography, Offshore Structures & Port Engineering

Q47

MCQ[2 Marks]

The layout of a Tension Leg Platform (TLP) is shown in the following figure. It consists of four interconnected pontoons at the bottom and four cylindrical columns, which support the working platform at the top. The density of sea water is $1025\text{ kg/m}^3$. Neglect the weight and buoyancy of the tethers. During operation, the maximum mass (in metric tonnes) of the entire structure must lie between

(A)

18630 and 18635

(B)

28635 and 28640

(C)

25655 and 25660

(D)

24560 and 24565

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Resistance, Propulsion & Ship Manoeuvring

Q48

MCQ[2 Marks]

The trajectory of a model ship during a pure sway PMM test is shown below. The steady forward speed, u is $2.0\text{ m}/\text{s}$. The maximum amplitude of sway motion, $y_{Max}$ is 0.5 m and its period is 8 s.\nThe magnitude of maximum drift angle, in degrees (round off to the nearest integer), and the magnitude of maximum sway acceleration, in $\text{m/s}^2$ (round off to one decimal place), of the model respectively are

(A)

11 and 0.3

(B)

13 and 0.5

(C)

15 and 0.2

(D)

9 and 0.1

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Resistance, Propulsion & Ship Manoeuvring

Q49

MCQ[2 Marks]

A ship of length 125 m has a design speed of 25 knots ($1\text{ knot} = 0.5144\text{ m}/\text{s}$). A 5.0 m long geometrically similar model with wetted surface area of $4\text{ m}^2$ has a coefficient of residuary resistance of $1.346 \times 10^{-3}$ at the corresponding speed.\nThe ship's residuary resistance in kN (in sea water of density $1025\text{ kg}/\text{m}^3$) and the model speed in knots (round off to the nearest integer) respectively are

(A)

285 and 5

(B)

17 and 5

(C)

285 and 1

(D)

17 and 1

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Motions, Structures & Strength

Q50

MCQ[2 Marks]

A 'T' section is welded to the flat bottom shell plate of a ship as shown in the following figure (bottom shell longitudinal). The neutral axis of the ship's midship section is 14 m above the bottom shell plate. The distance (X) of neutral axis of the 'T' section from the ship's neutral axis is m (round off to two decimal places)

(A)

12.63

(B)

13.63

(C)

15.24

(D)

11.24

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Physical Oceanography, Offshore Structures & Port Engineering

Q51

MCQ[2 Marks]

The heave natural frequencies of a Jacket structure, FPSO and a semi-submersible are $\omega_J$, $\omega_F$ and $\omega_S$ respectively. Each one of them has a pay load capacity of 10000 tonnes. Which of the following is TRUE?

(A)

$\omega_J < \omega_F < \omega_S$

(B)

$\omega_J > \omega_F > \omega_S$

(C)

$\omega_J < \omega_S < \omega_F$

(D)

$\omega_J > \omega_S > \omega_F$

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Resistance, Propulsion & Ship Manoeuvring

Q52

NAT[2 Marks]

For a ship of length $L=100\text{ m}$, the distance between the bow and stern pressure system is $0.942L$. Assume $g=10\text{ m}/\text{s}^2$. The ship velocity corresponding to the prismatic hump of the wave making resistance curve is m/s (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Geometry, Stability and Trim

Q53

NAT[2 Marks]

A vessel of 100 m length has a constant triangular cross-section with a depth of 12 m and breadth of 15 m as shown in following figure. The vessel has a vertical center of gravity (KG) = 6.675 m. The minimum draft (d), at which the vessel will become stable is m (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Resistance, Propulsion & Ship Manoeuvring

Q54

NAT[2 Marks]

For a marine screw propeller, the open water characteristics at $J=0.6$ are $K_{T}=0.1336$ and $10K_{Q}=0.2010$. The open water propeller efficiency $\eta_{o}$, is (round off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Physical Oceanography, Offshore Structures & Port Engineering

Q55

NAT[2 Marks]

A tsunami that originated off the Indonesian coast has propagated towards the east-coast of India. It enters the continental shelf at 150 km away from the coast of Chennai. If the average water depth is 80 m from the coast to the continental shelf and 20 minutes is the tsunami period, the time taken by the tsunami to reach the coast of Chennai on entering the continental shelf is hours (round off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Naval Architecture and Ocean Engineering→Ship Motions, Structures & Strength

Q56

NAT[2 Marks]

A marker buoy of mass 1500 kg floating in sea water of density $1025\text{ kg}/\text{m}^3$, consists of a cylinder and cone as shown in the following figure. The buoy is suitably ballasted to make it stable in the floating condition. The buoy is subjected to an external periodic excitation force in Newton, $F_{e}(t)=2000\sin(1.25t)$.\nIgnore damping effects and assume $g=9.81\text{ m}/\text{s}^2$, added mass $=25\%$ of the mass of the buoy.\nThe maximum heave response amplitude of the buoy is m (round off to one decimal place)

Explanation

Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering

9 Questions

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Marine Steam Turbines, Gas Turbines & Boilers

Q57

MCQ[1 Mark]

The vapor quality of steam in the turbine of a Rankine cycle can be improved by employing

(A)

regeneration of steam

(B)

intercooler

(C)

reheating

(D)

cogeneration

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q58

MCQ[1 Mark]

A closed system undergoing a thermodynamic cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal and two reversible adiabatic processes is shown in the following figure. If $\delta Q$ is the infinitesimal heat transfer and T is the instantaneous temperature, then the value of the contour integral $\oint \frac{\delta Q}{T}$

(A)

is positive

(B)

is negative

(C)

is zero

(D)

cannot be determined

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Marine Steam Turbines, Gas Turbines & Boilers

Q59

MCQ[1 Mark]

In a marine steam power cycle employing regeneration, the feed water heater for waste heat recovery is placed after the

(A)

boiler

(B)

turbine

(C)

condenser

(D)

pump

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q60

NAT[1 Mark]

A Carnot heat engine operates between two reservoirs of temperatures $900^{\circ}\text{C}$ ($T_H$) and $30^{\circ}\text{C}$ ($T_L$). If the heat transferred during one cycle to the engine from $T_H$ is 150 kJ, then the energy rejected to $T_L$ is kJ (round off to the nearest integer)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q61

MCQ[2 Marks]

A vertical frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement contains air of mass 1 kg. During a process, 50 J of heat is transferred from outside to the system such that the piston is raised slowly by 0.1 m from its initial equilibrium position. The mass of the piston is 1 kg, and the diameter is 0.1 m. Assume that $g=9.81\text{ m}/\text{s}^2$, and $P_{atm}=100\text{ kPa}$.\nThe change in internal energy of the air in J (round off to two decimal places) lies between

(A)

28.45 and 28.55

(B)

-28.55 and -28.45

(C)

-29.55 and -29.45

(D)

129.45 and 129.55

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q62

MCQ[2 Marks]

An insulated nozzle has an inlet cross-sectional area of $314\text{ cm}^2$. Air flows through the nozzle with an inlet temperature of 300 K at a steady rate of $1.256\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$. The velocity at the exit is greater than that at the inlet by $210\text{ m}/\text{s}$. Assume a constant $C_p = 1.004\text{ kJ}/\text{kg-K}$.\nThe temperature (in K) of air at the exit of the nozzle lies between

(A)

330 and 331

(B)

269 and 270

(C)

320 and 321

(D)

277 and 278

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q63

NAT[2 Marks]

Saturated liquid water ($m=1\text{ kg}$) initially at $0.101\text{ MPa}$ and $100^{\circ}\text{C}$ is heated at constant pressure until the temperature increases to $500^{\circ}\text{C}$. Assume a constant $C_p$ of steam = $1.9\text{ kJ}/\text{kg-K}$, and enthalpy of vaporization, $h_{fg}=2257\text{ kJ}/\text{kg}$ at $0.101\text{ MPa}$.\nThe change in entropy of the water is kJ/K (round off to two decimal places)

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Marine Steam Turbines, Gas Turbines & Boilers

Q64

NAT[2 Marks]

A simple vapor compression refrigeration cycle with ammonia as the working fluid operates between $30^{\circ}\text{C}$ and $-10^{\circ}\text{C}$ as shown in the following figure. The saturated liquid and vapor enthalpies at $30^{\circ}\text{C}$ and $-10^{\circ}\text{C}$ are provided in the table below. If the COP of the cycle is 5.6, the specific enthalpy at the inlet to the condenser is kJ/kg (round off to the nearest integer)\nTable values: h_f(30°C)=320, h_g(30°C)=1460, h_f(-10°C)=130, h_g(-10°C)=1420.

Explanation

GATE→2023→Thermodynamics and Marine Engineering→Thermodynamics & Marine Diesel Engines

Q65

NAT[2 Marks]

An air-standard diesel cycle, as shown in the following figure with a compression ratio of 16, has an initial pressure 0.9 bar and temperature 300 K. Assume $\gamma=1.4$ and $C_p=1.004\text{ kJ}/\text{kg-K}$. If the heat added during the constant pressure process is $900\text{ kJ}/\text{kg}$, then the peak temperature during the cycle is K (round off to the nearest integer)

Explanation